501-GMAT-Questions.pdf

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501

GMAT

QUESTIONS

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501

GMAT

QUESTIONS

NEW YORK

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Published in the United States by LearningExpress, LLC, New York.

Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data

501 GMAT questions.—First edition.

pages cm

ISBN 978-1-57685-920-9

1. Graduate Management Admission Test—Study guides. 2. Management—

Examinations, questions, etc. 3. Business—Examinations, questions, etc. 4. Verbal

ability—Examinations, questions, etc. 5. Mathematics—Examinations, questions, etc.

6. Universities and colleges—United States—Graduate work—Examinations—Study

guides. I. LearningExpress (Organization) II. Title: Five hundred one GMAT

questions. III. Title: Five hundred one GMAT questions.

HF1118.A14 2013

650.076—dc23

2013001029

Printed in the United States of America

9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

First Edition

ISBN 978-1-57685-920-9

*GMAT is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council

(GMAT

which was not involved in the production of, and does not endorse, this product.

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The content in this book has been reviewed and

updated by the LearningExpress Team in 2019.

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Contents

Introduction vii

SECTION 1 GMAT Writing Section 1

1 Analytical Writing Assessment 3

SECTION 2 GMAT Verbal Section 25

2 Critical Reasoning 27

3 Sentence Correction 121

4 Reading Comprehension 235

SECTION 3 GMAT Integrated Reasoning Section 299

5 Graphics Interpretation 301

6 Two-Part Analysis 331

7 Table Analysis 371

8 Multisource Reasoning 397

SECTION 4 GMAT Quantitative Section 415

9 Arithmetic 417

10 Algebra 441

11 Geometry 473

501 GMAT

Questions

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Introduction

Congratulations! By purchasing this book, you’re investing in your

future by taking a step toward obtaining an MBA degree, which in turn will

sharpen your business and analytical skills. 501 GMAT

Questions will

familiarize you with the Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT

)

and its format.

When you take the test, remember that the GMAT is a computer adap-

tive test (CAT), which means that as you answer each question, a harder

question or an easier question will appear. Therefore, you will not be able

to skip a question and come back to it later, or change your answer to any

previous questions. If you ﬁnd that you are having trouble with a particu-

lar question, try to eliminate some of the wrong answer choices, reread the

passage one more time, and then make your best guess. Do not leave any

questions unanswered.

How to Use this Book

This book is divided into four distinct sections, each representing a sec-

tion on the ofﬁcial GMAT: Writing, Verbal, Integrated Reasoning, and

Quantitative.

Review the instructional sections in each chapter before answering the

questions in that chapter. The answers to all questions are at the end of each

corresponding chapter. Each answer is fully explained, so if you have trou-

ble with a particular question, you will be able to ﬁgure out how to arrive

at the correct answer. Take your time; refer to the instructions as frequently

as you need to, and be sure you understand the answer explanations at the

end of each chapter. This book provides the practice; you provide the ini-

tiative and perseverance. Good luck!

viii

501 GMAT

Questions

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501

GMAT

QUESTIONS

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SECTION 1

GMAT

Writing Section

Strong writing skills are a prized asset in the business world. The abil-

ity to make a cohesive argument and communicate it clearly is something

that you can use in any facet of the business world. The GMAT Analytical

Writing Assessment aims to test these skills.

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Analytical

Writing Assessment

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The Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) is designed to measure

your ability to think critically and to cohesively express your ideas. The

AWA consists of one 30-minute essay: Analysis of an Argument.

The test will use topics of general interest connected to business or a

variety of other subjects to generate your prompts. No speciﬁc knowledge

of the essay topic is necessary to write a high-scoring essay—only your

capacity to write analytically will be measured.

You will be asked to analyze the reasoning behind an argument that is

provided and then write a critique of that argument. You will not be asked

to present your own views on the subject.

All AWA prompts share a similar format that includes a backdrop for the

prompt, the prompt statement, and instructions. It looks like this:

The following appeared in the editorial section of a corporate

newsletter:

The common notion that workers are generally apathetic about man-

agement issues is false, or at least outdated: a recently published survey

indicates that 79 percent of the nearly 1,200 workers who responded to

survey questionnaires expressed a high level of interest in the topics of

corporate restructuring and redesign of beneﬁts programs.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your discussion

be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of evidence in the

argument. For example, you may need to consider what questionable

assumptions underlie the thinking and what alternative explanations

or counterexamples might weaken the conclusion. You can also dis-

cuss what sort of evidence would strengthen or refute the argument,

what changes in the argument would make it more logically sound,

and what, if anything, would help you better evaluate its conclusion.

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Questions

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Developing Your Essay

When developing your essay, consider the following:

■

What questionable assumptions underlie the thinking behind

the argument?

■

What alternative explanations or counterexamples might

weaken the conclusion?

■

What sort of evidence could help strengthen or refute the

argument?

The AWA tests your ability to construct a thoughtful and uniﬁed critique

of a speciﬁc statement based on a speciﬁc line of reasoning. An effective way

to approach your argument is to create a brief, organized outline. Within

this outline, create:

■

an introduction that states a clear position in response to the

prompt with some brief support

■

a body that elaborates on each supportive idea with relevant

details and examples or experiences that deﬁne each supportive

idea

■

a conclusion that ties together all the parts of your argument

Improving Your Score

In order to improve your score, be aware of proper grammar, spelling, and

vocabulary. Using varied vocabulary and sentence structure (as long as both

are used effectively) will have a positive impact on your score.

Another way to boost your score is to employ some tactics that will sep-

arate your essay from the masses. Some ways to do this:

■

Correctly use relevant facts, statistics, and historical examples.

(Almost one-third of freshmen entering high school will

graduate.)

■

Make well-known literary references. (To quote Dickens, “It was

the best of times, it was the worst of times,” for everyone who

remained employed at the peak of the recession.)

■

Craft relevant and intelligent metaphors. (“All the world’s a

stage, and upon it our elected ofﬁcials are merely players.”)

A smart way to make your position stronger is to offer thoughts on the

other side of the argument. Brieﬂy addressing these counterpoints and

exposing their weaknesses can only strengthen your argument. It is easier

to make your position appear right after you have dispelled assumptions

from opposing perspectives.

Timing

It is important to keep track of time while developing your argument for the

AWA and to pace yourself accordingly. An incomplete essay will have a neg-

ative impact on the overall scoring of the AWA section of your exam.

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Questions

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Here is a good guideline to keep in mind for the usage of your allotted

time:

■

consider your issue or argument (1 minute)

■

choose your position, develop an outline (4–6 minutes)

■

create the body of your essay (22–24 minutes)

■

proofread (1–2 minutes)

Understanding Your Score

Each essay in the AWA section will be given two independent ratings, one

of which may be performed by an automated essay-scoring engine. The auto-

mated essay-scoring engine is an electronic system that evaluates over 50

structural and linguistic features, which include the organization of ideas,

syntactic variety, and topical analysis.

If the two ratings differ by more than one point, a separate and third eval-

uation by an expert reader is required to resolve the discrepancy and deter-

mine the ﬁnal score.

The two scores are then used to create an average score. Scores range

from 0 to 6, including half-point intervals. These scores are computed sep-

arately from the multiple-choice sections of the GMAT and will not affect

your Verbal, Quantitative, or Total scores.

College and university faculty members trained as readers for the AWA

will consider the following:

■

the overall quality of your ideas about the argument presented

■

your overall ability to organize, develop, and express those

ideas

■

the relevant supporting reasons and examples you used

■

your ability to control the elements of standard written

English

Business schools that receive your GMAT score will also receive your AWA

score. While most business schools will not place a great deal of importance

on a mediocre score, a good score can help boost your application.

Examinees whose ﬁrst language is not English will have their essays con-

sidered with some sensitivity to the elements of standard written English.

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Questions

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Set 1

Create a response to the following sample prompts.

1. The following appeared in the opinion column of a ﬁnancial

magazine:

A powerful business tycoon is in a better position to inﬂuence the

legislation, and ultimately the destiny, of a society or nation than

any political leader or government ofﬁcial can in their position.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

2. The following appeared as part of a newspaper editorial:

Throughout our society’s history there have been people who

dedicate themselves to changing the norms and set the bar anew

for generations to come. To leave such a mark on society takes

immense ambition, and we remember best the people who broke

the rules to achieve success.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

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Questions

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3. The following is an excerpt from a memo written by the head of a

governmental department:

Organizations should attempt to remove the large number of

positions and salary levels that categorize employees by skill and

experience, because a ﬂat structure is more likely to foster a

congenial working environment within the company.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

4. The following appeared in the editorial section of a college

newspaper:

In a world of ever-changing economic climates, it seems clear the

global impact of a nation should be weighed by its artistic and

scientiﬁc accomplishments rather than its accomplishments in

business and economic progress.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

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Questions

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5. The following appeared in a blog about education:

In order to maximize students’ potential, educators should create

an atmosphere of freedom and spontaneity in a learning

environment, rather than maintain a highly structured

environment that emphasizes discipline, punctuality, and routine.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

6. The following appeared as part of an article in a trade magazine:

Because there are already so many personal distractions to be had

at work, such as Facebook and texting, employees should keep

their private lives and personal activities as separate as possible

from the workplace. In this way, an employee can focus on work

and little else.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

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Questions

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7. The following appeared in a research paper written for an

introductory economics course:

Competition in the marketplace is beneﬁcial to businesses because

it inspires changes and improvements to the status quo. Businesses

that are ill-equipped to compete in a bustling market will not

likely last very long. The true mettle of a company and its product

and services is tested within the open market.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

8. The following appeared in the opinion column of a ﬁnancial

magazine:

These are times in which people ﬁnd themselves strapped for cash

while working multiple jobs or unemployed with little notice. The

average job listed online or in local classiﬁeds can sometimes have

up to seventy applicants, if not more. With this in mind, the

upcoming crop of soon-to-be college graduates should consider

ﬁnancial compensation as the main factor in deciding on a career

path.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

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Questions

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9. The following appeared in the media section of a magazine on

trends and lifestyles:

Because there is such a range of diverse cultures that make up the

world, the degree of censorship for improper content and language

in arts and entertainment media varies in different countries.

Discuss how well reasoned you ﬁnd this argument. In your

discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of

evidence in the argument. For example, you may need to consider

what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what

alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the

conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would

strengthen or refute the argument, what changes in the argument

would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would

help you better evaluate its conclusion.

10. The following appeared in an article in a consumer products

magazine:

When considering an array of advertising from a smattering of

different cultures from around the globe, one thing appears true:

the ideas of a nation become clear when observing its advertise-

ments. All aspects of a nation’s advertisements draw together to

paint a cultural story that moves with the population.

Explain what you think this quotation means and discuss how true

or false it may be. Develop your argument with reasons and/or

speciﬁc examples drawn from history, current events, or your own

experience, observation, or reading.

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Questions

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Answers—Set 1

Each sample essay below represents a score-6 response.

1. This statement, a powerful business tycoon is in a better position to

inﬂuence the destiny of a society or nation than any political leader or

government ofﬁcial, has a good deal of truth to it, but it should be

noted that a powerful business tycoon can easily inﬂuence

politicians to do what is in their interests as well. It is well-known

that lobbyists, who work in the interests of powerful businesses,

have a major inﬂuence on policy in Washington. Business tycoons,

and corporations, also have the power to greatly inﬂuence

elections with their money by funding campaigns, buying airtime,

and producing ads to achieve their personal ends. Furthermore,

tycoons and corporations can inﬂuence the destiny of a nation

by developing media and products that change the way people

do things.

Lobbyists are inﬂuential people who work for powerful

companies, or groups of companies, to secure their interests in

Washington. Lobbyists will often spend millions to inﬂuence

politicians regarding legislation and the positions they take on

certain issues. While the actual tycoons are not out there meeting

directly with politicians, their lobbyists are doing this work for

them. Lobbyists’ inﬂuence on legislation is far more profound than

most citizens realize.

Another way that tycoons and corporations with large

amounts of money can inﬂuence the destiny of a nation is through

campaign contributions. Perhaps one of the most effective ways to

inﬂuence the people’s vote is to control the message sent to the

voting public. Buying airtime and creating campaign press that will

inﬂuence the way people perceive a candidate can change the

outcome of an election, particularly if the tycoon happens to be a

media magnate.

On another level, a tycoon or successful corporation can

inﬂuence the destiny of a nation on a basic level—creating

something that is integral to the cultural fabric of the nation. This

can be anything from pharmaceuticals to media. Two examples of

this are Dow Chemical and Rupert Murdoch. Dow is an umbrella

company for most of the creators, researchers, and providers of

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Questions

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chemical content in everything from cosmetics to pesticides;

therefore, its presence in our daily lives is highly pervasive. Rupert

Murdoch, who owns and operates NewsCorp, is behind Fox News

Channel, which is available to upward of 102 million homes in the

United States. It is easy to inﬂuence a nation when you are a daily

part of its life.

While it is not necessarily a healthy truth, it is a truth

nonetheless that tycoons (or otherwise powerful entities) are in a

better position to inﬂuence the destiny of a country than any

politician. They are, in fact, in positions to inﬂuence the politicians

themselves to a great extent, consequently inﬂuencing legislation

and eventually our everyday lives.

2. There are several ways to understand the statement, and not every

angle is favorable or even true. It is not deﬁnitive to say that the

people we remember best are remembered because they broke the

rules. A great many people in history who are remembered for

their contributions to society are memorable because their

accomplishments beneﬁted the masses, regardless of how they

achieved the ends. Also, to remember someone for breaking the

rules may not be a positive memory, as is the case with infamous

criminals. It might be more honest to say that the people who we

remember for changing the game did so by breaking the rules.

It is not entirely true that we remember people because they

broke the rules. Many people, like Mother Teresa and Gandhi,

built a lifetime of accomplishments by sticking very closely to the

rules in everything they did. Of course we can think of many, like

Steve Jobs and Rupert Murdoch, who certainly have achieved

monumental success for having done things their way, against the

grain, but it would be incorrect to use them as deﬁnitive examples.

Additionally, rule breakers whose accomplishments are

remembered are not necessarily positive forces in our society.

Bernard Madoff would be considered a breaker of rules. He did

everything he wasn’t supposed to do and beneﬁted greatly

ﬁnancially, yet he destroyed the lives of many people and families

who trusted him. While we may remember him, it isn’t because he

did anything good.

Perhaps a more reﬁned way to state the sentiments would be

to say that “the people we remember best are the ones who played

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Questions

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the game by their own rules.” Intrinsic in this statement is that the

person in question had an independent mind-set and did not give

up on his or her dreams when things seemed difﬁcult. By bringing

to light a person’s individuality rather than insubordination, this

statement can remain a positive inspiration to others.

In sum, it is not a reliable statement to say we remember

those who broke the rules. To put it this way lends this statement

to much interpretation that isn’t necessarily positive or useful. To

say that we remember those who did things their own way would

be more appropriate.

3. While the fundamental premise of the argument, that a ﬂat structure

is likely to foster a more congenial work atmosphere, may be true, it

could prove disastrous for the organization. Not every position at

every organization requires the same amount of daily hours or the

same skill set from the individual occupying said position. Some

positions may require extensive and speciﬁc education, while other

positions at the same organization may not require any secondary

education or training at all. While it might be fair to imply that the

disparity between some people at the very top of the organizational

structure and the rest of the organization’s employees is unjust,

imposing a ﬂat salary structure would be too drastic. Furthermore,

to initiate such a drastic policy could end in a mass exodus of

higher-level employees and spell the end for an organization.

To say to an employee with an applicable secondary degree

that he or she will now be compensated on the same level as

another employee who may lack the same credentials can easily be

taken as an insult. Engineers and technicians who work at the same

automobile factory will have different tasks in their positions. They

may all be equally important in the grand scope of fabricating a

car, but it would be unfair to say that every job at that automobile

plant requires the same skill set and experience level. While the

people who design the cars, the people who test the cars, and the

people who build the cars are all working toward the same end,

they have committed to their craft on different levels. Also,

different employees in the same position may have varying degrees

of experience as well as education.

Another reason why it would be a bad business plan to change

an existing salary structure to a ﬂat rate is that the change would

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Questions

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have far too drastic an impact on some employees’ ﬁnances. Once

a person has become accustomed to living with certain means, or

salary, it is very difﬁcult to change that salary without causing the

employee great stress. Imagine living on a salary that gets reduced

by a third or even a quarter: Some sacriﬁces must be grudgingly

made to adapt. A disgruntled employee is rarely a productive

employee.

Lastly, when you have a business full of top employees who

are undervalued, you risk a mass exodus of prime employees. Of

course, there will be a great many employees on the lower scale

who will be happy, but one must consider whether these employees

are more vital than the ones whose pay will be reduced. Once all

the people who design or create your automobiles have left the

organization, you would have to start from the bottom to rebuild.

This could quickly end up costing the company far more than it

ever hoped to save from changing its salary structure.

To be fair, all employees at any organization should be paid

with considerable generosity to maintain a healthy work environ-

ment. People do not generally work hard when they feel

undervalued, and the same goes for the employees who work at the

very top of the salary, and position, pyramid.

4. It is impossible to judge the value of a nation solely on its contribu-

tions to the arts and sciences. Historically, it is the impact of various

factors within a society that shape the standard of living of a nation.

Business and economic progress set the stage for success in arts and

sciences research and accomplishments. A healthy economy and

global business engagement can only increase the internal wealth

and infrastructure of a country, which can advance a nation in its

cultural accomplishments.

To assert that only artistic and scientiﬁc accomplishments can

deﬁne a nation’s worth is heavily one-sided. While the massive

totem heads found on Easter Island are largely considered a

magniﬁcent accomplishment in art and sculpture, is it fair to say

that this Paciﬁc island nation should be valued as a most accom-

plished nation? A tribal nation that lacked the infrastructure to

prosper as a ﬁrst world country should hardly be in the same

category as, say, Italy for its respective achievements in art. It is an

incongruous comparison at best.

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In most countries where the economy is growing, people tend

to have more formal education. This is in large part because a

growing economy requires all sorts of people in varying profes-

sions to be successful in their pursuits. These pursuits can be

exporting and importing goods, creating software, or telecommu-

nications. Businesses that engage with the economies of other

nations also open the door to other cultures, and therefore increase

a nation’s understanding of the world and humanity.

Furthermore, a robust economy creates a heartier cash ﬂow

for a nation’s citizens. When food and shelter are stable, it enables

a society to pursue more intellectual ﬁelds and consequently

develop ideas and research in the arts and sciences. Countries that

have a high or competitive GDP also tend to be countries with

highly educated citizens and a high percentage of people with

secondary degrees. This type of intellectual slant on society creates

the right environment for success and accomplishment in the arts

and sciences.

So, you see it would be folly to sum up a nation’s value relying

only on a tally of accomplishments in the arts and sciences. While

achievements in the arts and sciences are a good indicator of a

nation’s cultural progress, they are by no means an overall

illustration of standards. A better method of calculating a

nation’s value would be to consider all accomplishments in the

arts and sciences as well as its economic progress and business

achievements.

5. People learn in many different ways and ﬁnd inspiration in a

variety of environments. Some students require the structure and

discipline of a routine-heavy system of learning, while others may

shut down in this environment. Conversely, a learning

environment with little restrictions and an inclination toward

creativity and spontaneity may be very inspiring to some, but

others may need help focusing on tasks and topics. The latter is a

method that can surely inspire advanced thinking, but either

method could easily alienate either type of learner.

While a free-learning environment would be the most

inspiring, for some students it is a challenge to remain focused on a

task for an extended period of time. A signiﬁcant portion of

students in today’s classrooms could potentially be classiﬁed within

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a wide range of learning disabilities. These disabilities could be

easily treated with medication, or by creating the boundaries of an

effective routine. For students like these, a free-learning environ-

ment may pose a challenge or even a threat. While some students

will thrive in a free-learning environment, others will unfortu-

nately become alienated by this method.

Other students, who perhaps are more creatively inclined or

experimental-minded, will thrive in an open, spontaneous learning

environment. In preschool this is referred to as “free-play,” where

students can decide what games they play and what they will learn.

In this scenario, the teacher allows the student to lead the way and

supports the student’s exploration. Some students respond to this

freedom with an enhanced desire to learn and a drive to explore

tasks and topics with even greater depth. For students who can

handle this type of setting, it can be a mind-opening experience

that stokes the ﬂames of curiosity. Furthermore, it impresses in the

young student’s mind that learning can be a thrilling experience

and he or she can feel great inspiration by controlling the process.

Particularly advanced students may become bored with tasks and

topics within a routine-heavy and structured environment.

The most successful classrooms and learning environments

will incorporate both styles of education effectively. It falls upon

the educators, as well as the families of the students, to work to

better understand the minds of each and every student in a

classroom, so that an environment that strives not to alienate

anyone is born. This is a task that may seem impossible for a lone

teacher with a classroom full of students, but there can be ways

around this conundrum. For example, a teacher might assign

students to groups that tackle the same exact tasks and topics in

different ways.

In sum, it is not effective to rely on one method of teaching

to maximize all students’ potential. Even though an open learning

environment may prove to be more inspiring and motivational, it

can potentially alienate students who are not prepared for these

scenarios. Also, students who require more responsibility so that

they remain interested in tasks and topics may lose interest in

lessons. The ideal learning environment is one that is sensitive to

students’ individual needs and responds to those needs accordingly.

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6. This statement is essentially great advice, but in reality it may be

difﬁcult to follow. In cases where an individual works in a

profession that requires her or him to be social, it may prove to be

almost impossible to draw such a hard line between professional

and personal aspects of life. Some professions will require so much

of one’s time that it would require one to basically live behind a

facade. Still, in most settings it is the safest approach toward one’s

job whenever possible.

Some professions require people to be socially, and even

emotionally, available to others. One such profession is sales.

Whether a person is selling insurance, cars, or ideas, he or she will

be expected to spend a great deal of time interacting with clients.

In this situation it might prove disastrous to keep your clients at a

distance. Most people who do this type of work walk a ﬁne line

between being genuine and being disconnected. Additionally, it

behooves a good salesperson to know his or her market/clientele in

order to keep providing them with the goods and services that are

most relevant to them. In order to do this, salespeople must be

ready to give of themselves so that they may get some of the others.

Professionals like lawyers, doctors, and journalists may spend

unusual amounts of time at work with others. In these situations a

person may become depressed or unmotivated after long stretches

of time without connecting to anyone. Perhaps getting a drink

with some coworkers at the end of the day and chatting about each

other’s lives and interests may bond them so that they can work

together more effectively. While engaging in this behavior is

always a risk, and could end up in social divisions or rifts, it might

be unavoidable.

Despite the human need to make connections with each

other, there are still some professions in which fraternizing may

become detrimental to one’s position. While teachers may enjoy

creating personal connections with each other, it would be

inappropriate for a teacher to engage in similar relationships with

his or her students. Similarly, while social workers explore their

clients’ personal lives and activities, they should largely remain

an anonymous presence in their clients’ lives to maintain

professionalism.

Employees certainly should strive to maintain their personal

lives and activities as separate from work as possible, but in some

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cases this is not likely or emotionally healthy. This philosophy is

certainly the easiest and most effective way to reduce potential for

things like prejudice and emotional confusion between coworkers,

but, unfortunately, it is not always the most realistic approach.

7. Competitive businesses tend to grow and adapt at a fast and

ﬂexible rate. In the struggle to remain on top of a particular

market, a business must understand the needs and expectations of

its client base. One method of collecting this data is to assess and

analyze the models of competitive businesses. In doing so a

business learns more about itself in relation to the marketplace,

and also readies itself to compete with rival businesses. Sometimes

this leads businesses to adopt methods and models “outside the

box” in order to stay one step ahead of their rivals. Adapting and

changing the perspectives and expectations of how a business

should be run increases the business’s ability to survive and rise to

the top.

The lifeline of a business is its connection to its clientele.

Success in business is a codependent relationship with its clients.

When several businesses are in competition to serve the same

demographic, it makes perfect sense to monitor the methods of

rival businesses. For example, when Apple develops a new phone, it

is imperative for Samsung and other competitors to ﬁnd out as

much as possible about this new product before it even hits the

market. The more data these rival companies can collect, the more

likely they can come up with a competitive phone before they lose

a portion of their business to this new product. The only way to

stay new and popular is to constantly try to outperform other

businesses in your marketplace.

In some cases a competitive marketplace will lead a business

to change its internal model on a regular basis. This is good

because change in the marketplace is less likely to happen when

the internal workings of a business remain stagnant. This also

helps reduce bloating of staff and unnecessary protocol. A regular

restructuring and purge of unnecessary positions is vital to

maintaining a healthy business model. Much like the rivalry

between Microsoft and Apple, it makes sense to emulate the model

of a more successful business in a shared marketplace. By creating

competitive products and functioning with a competitive business

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model, a business continues to increase its chances of remaining

relevant to its client base.

More importantly than emulating its rivals, a company must

always be able to conceive of ways to stay one step ahead of them.

Necessity is often an impetus to radical invention, and while no

business wishes to ﬁnd itself in a desperate situation, it certainly

increases the likelihood of risk-taking. In situations where a

business must struggle against a very competitive market, it pays to

think of unconventional ways of reaching and satisfying the

clientele.

In summation, competition in the marketplace is vital for the

growth and survival of any company. Without competition, a

business risks becoming irrelevant, antiquated, and out of touch.

8. It is an age-old struggle for young people: deciding on a path for

the future. When carving out a career path, what factors should be

most important? Some may say it is a better life decision to do

what makes you happy. Others believe the most important thing in

a career is stability and ﬁnancial security. Some people are lucky to

ﬁnd themselves inclined to pursue a career that is lucrative and also

makes them very happy. Still others may dedicate themselves to the

struggle of doing what they love without the promise of steady pay.

I feel that if you do not enjoy your profession, there is no amount

of money that can make you happy.

Many people choose ﬁelds of study in college that will guide

them toward a reliable career with opportunities for growth and

exponential ﬁnancial compensation. Some such ﬁelds may include

medicine or law. In either of these ﬁelds of study, the possible

careers one may forge are complicated and deeply engrossing.

Most lawyers and doctors are prone to work long, intense hours

under massive amounts of pressure, but the compensation for their

invested time is substantial. Furthermore, doctors and lawyers will

always have a professional place in society. This may all be true,

but one can hardly imagine dedicating one’s life to such professions

without receiving some sort of personal satisfaction.

Others decide to pursue livelihoods doing what they love

most, even if it may not be ﬁnancially secure. For example, take

the notion of the “starving artist” as an illustration of someone

who pursues a career in a ﬁnancially unstable ﬁeld. Actors, writers,

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and musicians can easily ﬁt this description, although many artists

do get to enjoy a great deal of professional and ﬁnancial success.

Being able to spend most of one’s time doing what one loves most

may prove to be highly fulﬁlling, but it often does not guarantee

any sort of ﬁnancial security for the future. While this professional

fulﬁllment may be profound, as time passes it is overshadowed by a

lack of stability.

The luckiest people are those who take great joy in the

professions they have chosen in ﬁnancially viable ﬁelds. Doctors

who love to study medicine and lawyers who get a thrill from

practicing law have the best of both worlds. To do what one

loves best and be amply compensated from this work is truly to

have it all.

In the end, a person may pursue a lifetime of work that he or

she is not passionate about, but the ﬁnancial compensation may

never be enough for this sacriﬁce. Conversely, even though it may

be thrilling to dedicate your life to pursuing your passion, it may

get old when there is never any stability. The best conﬂuence of

factors would be to ﬁnd a lucrative way to do something that

makes you happy.

9. Censorship in arts and entertainment varies from country to

country, as cultures and media will vary. In most cases the result is

a conﬂuence of two factors: a country’s media infrastructure (access

to the Internet, cable/satellite, etc.) and that country’s cultural

inclinations (religion, type of government, etc.). A third factor

when considering a government’s control over media content is

relevant demographics. A country’s power of censorship should be

primarily driven by these three factors to provide a fair and

relevant cultural experience for its people.

Available access to media is something that varies greatly

across the globe. While many nations, like the United States, can

easily connect to the Internet from the home, there are many

nations that still largely rely on public access to the Internet, such

as cafes. In cases of countries that lack a pervasive electrical grid

that extends power to the individual homes of its inhabitants (e.g.,

tribal areas of Africa), access to the Internet or TV may be a

greater problem than regulation, thereby limiting the govern-

ment’s ability to control what type of content the people can

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access. Countries that engage in open ﬂow of content exchange,

such as purchasing international media to run on national TV and

radio, will have greater opportunities to shape that nation’s

programming and to ﬁne-tune the message of that content.

Perhaps the greatest regulator of a culture’s media is its

government type and religious inclinations. China’s ﬁrewall and

close surveillance of Internet content is a perfect illustration of that

country’s powerful communist administration. To deregulate the

ﬂow of media in China would greatly undermine the staunch

values and focused message of Chinese-generated media. By

contrast, countries like the United States that are founded on

principles like freedom of speech would greatly undermine their

fundamental values by allowing the government too much control

of their media. Religious afﬁliations and inclinations may have

even more speciﬁc regulatory effects in places like Afghanistan and

Saudi Arabia, where it is a violation of the Koran to depict Allah,

and the role of women in society requires them to wear traditional

garb at all times.

A country’s access to media and its cultural orientation are

expressly guided by its internal demographic. While a government

has the ability to restrict or release media, it makes no difference

when no one is watching. There is a basic aspect of supply and

demand, or viewership, with regard to programming. For example,

the most expensive commercial airtime on American TV every

year is during the Super Bowl. Drawing an average of 111 million

viewers in recent years, it is one of the most watched sporting

events in the world.

In conclusion, the extent to which a governing body should

be allowed to regulate public media varies from country to

country. Power over the media should be relevant to the founding

principles of a nation and should not undermine certain funda-

mental tenets of a society. The power a governing body has over a

nation’s media is relative to the peoples’ access to programming

and content. Viewership and demographics play a substantial role

in shaping that media, perhaps more powerfully than the govern-

ing body itself.

10. This statement can be interpreted in various ways. The ideas of a

nation can be a broad array of topics, particularly in a country like

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the United States, where people feel nationalistic pride to express

their minds. Beyond seeing the desires and needs of a country

based on the supply and demand of its product and service

consumption, advertising also tells us a lot about demographics. To

deﬁne the limits and motives of a nation’s advertising is to

recognize its demographics and thereby somehow deﬁne the ideas

and preferences of the people within those demographics.

First, we should deﬁne exactly what we mean by the ideas of a

nation and how they relate to advertising. If by ideas we mean to

say ideologies, then I do agree that we can ascertain this from a

sampling of advertising. Clearly, if a nation is primarily religious

it isn’t likely that we will see advertising containing overt sexual

innuendo, nudity, or other images that challenge those reli-

gious views.

If we deﬁne the ideas of a nation to refer speciﬁcally to widely

accepted notions, I believe advertising is not a reliable source of

data. Things like trends, styles, and much-observed topics are the

fabric of pop culture. This cultural fabric is an eclectic quilt of

varying demographics, and the audience will vary from product to

product and media format to media format. Therefore the ideas, in

this sense, would be too broad to deﬁne so simply.

Demographic information is a revealing tale of who makes up

the most inﬂuential groups of a nation. For example, we can

assume that a country in which a majority of the women in each

household with children leave the home to go to work must have a

reliable infrastructure of childcare. Because of this large demo-

graphic, the consumption of products and services in the ﬁeld of

childcare will likely be greater than the demand for these products

and services in countries where women of the household tradition-

ally stay at home to raise their families. If there is a negligible

market for this area, it will be reﬂected as a lack of a country’s

advertising in that ﬁeld.

Somehow, by factoring together these aspects of a nation’s

advertising, we can grasp a broad notion of its ideas as they relate

to the established demographics present in that nation, but the

previous statement remains far too broad in its verbiage. Perhaps it

would make more sense to say that we can tell the demographics of

a nation by its advertising.

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SECTION 2

GMAT

Verbal Section

To be successful in the business world, you’ll need to recognize how

sentences work, how arguments are constructed, and how written English

is used and understood. These skills will be tested in the GMAT Verbal sec-

tion with three types of multiple-choice questions—Reading Comprehen-

sion, Critical Reasoning, and Sentence Correction.

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Critical Reasoning

When you take the GMAT, critical reasoning sections will be inter-

spersed throughout the Verbal section. Critical reasoning questions use pas-

sages that are shorter than those in the reading comprehension section, and

passages will have one or two questions. The passage will remain visible on

the screen for each question.

Critical reasoning questions test the reasoning skills involved in con-

structing an argument, evaluating an argument, and formulating or evalu-

ating a plan. You do not need to have any familiarity with the subject matter

of the questions in order to answer them. Furthermore, you will want to be

wary of any prior knowledge that you have about any ﬁeld written about in

a critical reasoning question because outside knowledge may cause you to

make assumptions about the correct answer.

Following are the directions for the critical reasoning questions. Read

them carefully and understand them clearly so that you will not need to

spend time reviewing them when you sit for the test: Each of the critical rea-

soning questions is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of

action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

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Argument Construction

Examples of argument construction question types are: identify the basic

structure of the argument, draw the argument’s conclusion, identify the

assumption, draw an inference, explain the hypothesis, and identify paral-

lels between arguments with similar structures.

Identify the Basic Structure of the Argument

These questions test you on your ability to recognize components of an

argument and how the argument is put together. This question may actu-

ally quote a speaker and ask you to identify what that speaker is doing.

These questions may also quote a speaker and then list the response of a dif-

ferent speaker. Examples:

■

X responds to Y by

■

The phrase in bold plays which of the following roles in the

argument above?

■

A supports his conclusion by

Draw the Conclusion

These questions ask you to identify the conclusion that most logically fol-

lows from the passage.

■

Which of the following most logically completes the argument

given below?

■

The statements above, if true, best support which of the

following as a conclusion?

■

Which of the following conclusions CANNOT be drawn from

the statements above?

Identify the Assumption

Look for an unstated premise that must be true in order for the argument

to be valid.

■

The conclusion above is properly drawn if which of the

following is assumed?

■

The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that

■

Which of the following assumptions would make the

conclusion above properly drawn?

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■

The argument above relies on which of the following

assumptions?

Draw an Inference

Look to see what inferences you can draw from the information in the pas-

sage.

■

Which of the following can be inferred from the argument

above?

■

If all of the statements above are true, then which of the

following must also be true?

■

Which of the following is best supported by the passage?

Explain the Hypothesis

These questions ask you to resolve an apparent contradiction in the passage

or to pick the answer choice that would be most helpful to assess the argu-

ment.

■

Which of the following, if true, helps to explain the

discrepancy described above?

■

All of the following statements help to explain . . . EXCEPT

Identify Parallels Between Arguments with Similar Structures

These questions ask you to ﬁnd the answer choice that imitates the argu-

ment in the passage.

■

Which of the following uses the same method as the author in

the above statements?

■

Which of the following has the same structure as the above

passage?

Argument Construction Test-Taking Strategies

1. Identify the premises of the argument.

Premises could consist of an actual fact (“larger cars usually burn more

fuel”), a report or study (“the city’s survey shows that the majority of peo-

ple want the X subway line expanded”), or a reason (“most people eat broc-

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coli instead of French fries because they want to lose weight”). Be aware

that critical reasoning questions will often clog the statements with extra-

neous information that is not part of the argument. Mentally set that infor-

mation aside and focus on the premises. Jot them down on scratch paper

if necessary.

2. Identify the conclusion.

The conclusion of the argument is the reason that the argument exists in

the ﬁrst place. Conclusions exist in various forms, such as a recommenda-

tion for a future course of action (“In order to increase revenue, Company

X should offer a sale during the upcoming holiday”), an opinion (“Farmers

believe that this new irrigation technique will result in greater crop yields”),

or an interpretation (“Polling companies concluded from the survey that

most citizens of Nation Z will vote for Candidate Y”). If the passage does

not have a conclusion and the question asks you to identify the answer

choice that has the correct conclusion, try to paraphrase a conclusion in

your own words and look for the answer choice that best matches the con-

clusion you already formed.

3. Identify the assumption.

An assumption is the gap in the reasoning of the argument. Not all argu-

ments in life have assumptions. For example:

All people are warm-blooded. Laura is a person. Therefore, Laura is warm-

blooded. There is no gap in the reasoning here. However, GMAT

critical

reasoning questions use arguments with a gap in the reasoning. This kind

of gap, an assumption, would make the above argument look like this:

All people are warm-blooded. Laura is warm-blooded. Therefore, Laura is a

person. The link between the conclusion and the supporting facts is ﬂawed

because there is an assumption here, which is that all warm-blooded beings

are people. This is obviously not true, but the conclusion assumes that it is.

If you reject the assumption, then you must reject the conclusion.

To identify the assumption, you will want to be familiar with the most

common forms of assumptions on the GMAT

. One kind of assumption is

a causal connection, in which the argument assumes that one causal con-

nection in the supporting facts also proves an additional causal connection.

Example: People who enroll in MBA programs are more likely to earn a high

salary in their career. Therefore, enrolling in an MBA program causes a person to

ﬁnd a better job. The argument assumes that because enrollment in an MBA

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program causes higher salaries, then enrollment also causes people to ﬁnd

better jobs.

Another kind of assumption is a similarity between terms in the sup-

porting facts and those in the conclusion. Example: Sixty percent of people

with MBA degrees in New York City indicate that they earn over $100,000 a year.

Therefore, 60% of people with MBA degrees earn over $100,000 per year. The

argument assumes a similarity between people in New York City with MBA

degrees and people overall with MBA degrees.

A third kind of assumption is a shift in the terms in the supporting facts

and the conclusion. Example: People with MBA degrees tend to have more

knowledge about computer information systems. Therefore, people with MBA

degrees know more about conducting business at the corporate level. The argument

shifts from knowledge about computer information systems to knowledge

about conducting business at the corporate level.

The most straightforward way to attack an assumption question is to test

each answer choice against the conclusion. Could the conclusion still be

valid if the assumption were negated? If so, then that answer choice is not

the assumption of the argument.

4. Identify the inferences that go too far.

Inference questions ask you to identify the answer choice with the inference

that must be true, not the choices that might be true. Therefore, be wary of

answer choices that state facts that the passage itself does not actually state.

For example, suppose an answer choice says: Defense attorneys have abused

their positions. If the passage does not say anything about defense attorneys

abusing their position, then this answer choice probably goes too far. You

want to pick the answer that says something that you can deﬁnitely con-

clude from the passage and that is within the scope of the passage.

5. In resolve the discrepancy questions, identify other possible causes

for the end result.

Resolve the discrepancy questions tend to be about a plan or a study that

set out to achieve or prove one thing, and the end result was not what was

expected. Think of other reasons that could be the cause for the end result

and then look at the answer choices. Is that answer choice a plausible expla-

nation for the result? Second, does that answer choice thoroughly explain

the end result? Be wary of answer choices that would partially explain the

result, but fail to address the entire issue.

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Set 2

Now it is time to answer GMAT Critical Reasoning practice questions that

have been designed to test your argument construction skills. Good luck!

11. Louis: The ﬁnancial industry will suffer greatly from the new

government regulations over derivatives. Compliance with these

regulations will cost the industry $5.5 million annually because

companies in the industry will have to double the size of their

proxy statements in order to disclose all the required information.

Companies in the industry will then lose proﬁts and have to lay off

other employees. Therefore, these regulations will have an adverse

effect on the nation’s economy.

Peter: The $5.5 million that companies in the ﬁnance

industry will have to spend will be proﬁts for other types of

companies in the private sector. Proﬁts and jobs may be lost in the

ﬁnance industry, but they will be gained by other companies.

Peter responds to Louis by

a. agreeing with Louis’s conclusion by offering additional infor-

mation to support it.

b. offering information that suggests that Louis has overlooked a

mitigating consequence.

c. agreeing with Louis’s conclusion but suggesting that the out-

come is positive rather than negative.

d. challenging the tenability of the facts that serve as the basis of

Louis’s argument.

e. demonstrating that Louis’s conclusion is not based on relevant

facts.

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12. A cellular phone company spent tens of thousands of dollars in the

past year ﬁxing cell towers damaged by extreme weather

conditions. In order to reduce the company’s overall budget this

year, the company plans to cover the base of its towers with a

better type of steel and to move certain towers to different

locations so that fewer overall are needed.

Which of the following would NOT be required for the

cellular phone company to achieve its aim?

a. The cost of the steel would have to be lower than the cost of

the repairs to the cell towers during the previous year.

b. The cost of evaluating the most efﬁcient placing of cell towers

would have to be lower than the cost of the repairs to the cell

towers during the previous year.

c. The cost of covering the towers with the better type of steel

would have to be lower than the cost of the repairs to the cell

towers during the previous year.

d. The cost of the repairs to the cell towers during the previous

year would have to be lower than the price of the steel con-

struction crews’ wages to cover the cell tower bases.

e. The cost of shipping the steel would have to be lower than the

cost of the repairs to the cell towers during the previous year.

13. Kathryn has a higher GPA than Pamela. Madelyn has a higher

GPA than Adrienne. Shane has a higher GPA than Madelyn.

Thus, it follows that Kathryn has a higher GPA than Adrienne.

Which of the following, if introduced into the argument as an

additional premise, makes the argument above logically incorrect?

a. Madelyn has a higher GPA than Katherine.

b. Katherine has a higher GPA than Madelyn.

c. Adrienne has a higher GPA than Pamela.

d. Pamela has a higher GPA than Madelyn.

e. Adrienne has a higher GPA than Shane.

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14. The Braman Rule states that someone who leaves property to

another in a will cannot leave property that the deceased did not

own at the time of death. Humphrey Monroe left Claire McGinnis

a cottage in his will. Claire McGinnis stated in her will that all her

property would be left to her niece, Sharon. Claire McGinnis

died before Humphrey Monroe. Therefore, the cottage was

not inherited by the person whom Claire McGinnis wanted to

inherit it.

Which of the following assumptions would make the

conclusion above properly drawn?

a. Claire McGinnis wanted Sharon to inherit the cottage.

b. Humphrey Monroe wanted Sharon to inherit the cottage.

c. Sharon wanted to inherit the cottage.

d. Claire McGinnis did not want Sharon to inherit the cottage.

e. Humphrey Monroe did not want Sharon to inherit the cottage.

15. A franchise restaurant pays its employees in State A $2.00 per hour

above the minimum wage, and pays its employees in State B $1.00

per hour above the minimum wage. The franchise has three times

as many employees in State A as in State B. The franchise’s total

expenditures on hourly wages for its employees must therefore be

higher in State A than in State B.

The argument above relies on which of the following

assumptions?

a. The franchise employees in State A do not each work signiﬁ-

cantly less hours than the franchise employees in State B.

b. The franchise has a greater number of restaurants in State A

than in State B.

c. The franchise employees in State B each work signiﬁcantly

more hours than the franchise employees in State A.

d. The law in State A requires the franchise to pay its employees a

higher wage than the law in State B.

e. The franchise is planning to decrease the wages paid to employ-

ees in State A to $1.00 per hour above the minimum wage.

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16. The cost of buying diamonds in the country of Luvania is 40%

more than the cost of buying diamonds in the country of Oretania.

When one adds the expenses of travel and the tax on purchases by

foreigners in Oretania, buying diamonds in Oretania is still less

expensive for a citizen of Luvania than buying diamonds in

Luvania.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the

following as a conclusion?

a. The ground in Oretania breaks more easily under the force of a

pickaxe than it does in Luvania.

b. The tax on purchases by foreigners in Oretania is less than 40%

of the cost of buying diamonds in Luvania.

c. The cost of traveling to Oretania from Luvania is more than

the 40% of the cost of buying diamonds in Luvania.

d. Diamond mining costs are higher in Luvania than in Oretania.

e. Buying diamonds in Luvania will eliminate some retail jobs in

jewelry stores in Oretania.

17. After reports from three schools of too much chlorine in their

drinking water, the city hired a plumbing company to revamp its

running water system. The plumbing company replaced the

ﬁltration system after the point in which groundwater is collected.

We can conclude that the three schools will no longer have a

problem with too much chlorine in their drinking water.

Which of the following does the argument depend on as an

assumption?

a. Not all faulty water ﬁltration systems will allow too much chlo-

rine into the drinking water.

b. Water ﬁltration systems are not the only source of too much

chlorine in the drinking water.

c. The city has been able to successfully ﬁlter water at its water ﬁl-

tration plant.

d. The excess chlorine was not introduced into the schools’ water

supply at some point later than groundwater collection.

e. Not all faulty water ﬁltration systems are likely to produce

excess chlorine in a drinking water supply.

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18. The number of people who quit smoking every year is on the rise.

The most common reasons that people cited in a survey for

quitting smoking are wanting to improve their health, wanting to

save money, and wanting to appear physically appealing. Out of the

people who quit smoking that cited health reasons, 85% of them

also cited wanting to appear physically appealing. The last

question in the survey asked whether physical appearance was

important to the respondents. 100% of survey respondents

answered afﬁrmatively.

Which of the following, if true, does NOT explain the

discrepancy described above?

a. Some respondents felt that although their physical appearance

was important to them, it was not important enough to quit

smoking.

b. Some respondents believed that holding a cigarette enhanced

their physical appearance.

c. Some respondents believed that cigarette smoking would not

have an adverse effect on their physical appearance.

d. Some respondents felt superﬁcial in admitting that their physi-

cal appearance was important to them.

e. Some respondents believed that cigarette smoking had little to

no connection to their physical appearance.

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19. Rental prices are usually lower on the basement and ground ﬂoors

of an apartment building, and highest at the top of the building.

Rental prices are also usually higher for buildings that receive

more sunlight. In addition, rental prices are determined by the

number of bedrooms in an apartment. There are six ﬂoors in

building #153. Cathy lives on the sixth ﬂoor, David lives on the

fourth ﬂoor, Krystal lives on the ground ﬂoor, and Oscar lives in

the basement. Out of the four tenants, Krystal pays the highest

rent and Oscar pays the lowest rent.

Which of the following conclusions CANNOT be drawn

from the statements above?

a. Oscar lives in a 1-bedroom, David’s apartment receives the

most sunlight, and Krystal lives in a 3-bedroom.

b. Cathy lives in a 3-bedroom, Oscar lives in a 3-bedroom, and

Krystal lives in a 1-bedroom.

c. Krystal lives in a 1-bedroom, David’s apartment receives the

most sunlight, and Cathy lives in a 3-bedroom.

d. David lives in a 2-bedroom, Cathy’s apartment receives the

most sunlight, and Oscar lives in a 1-bedroom.

e. Cathy lives in a 3-bedroom, Cathy’s apartment gets the most

sunlight, and Krystal lives in a 5-bedroom.

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20. A university study showed that women who spent more money on

their exercise clothes went to the gym more often. However, the

women who spent more money on their exercise clothes did not

lose more weight than the women who spent less money on their

exercise clothes.

Which of the following statements does NOT help to explain

the results of the study?

a. The women who spent more money on their exercise clothes

did not exercise as hard as those who spent less money because

they were too concerned about looking good at the gym.

b. The women who spent less money on their exercise clothes

worked out more frequently than those who spent more; they

just did not work out as frequently at the gym.

c. The women who spent more money on their exercise clothes

focused their workouts more on strength training and less on

fat and/or calorie burning exercise.

d. The women who spent more money on their exercise clothes

were, on average, already at their ideal weight.

e. The women who spent more money on their exercise clothes

had higher memberships in weight loss programs.

21. In the past, doctors would often prescribe antibiotics to patients

with viruses purely for purposes of patient satisfaction. Antibiotics

only successfully treat bacterial infections and do not actually treat

viruses, which must merely run their course. Doctors have since

decreased the percentage of patients for whom they prescribe

antibiotics.

All the following statements help to explain the decrease in

the percentage of patients prescribed antibiotics EXCEPT:

a. Doctors are less concerned with patient satisfaction.

b. Doctors are more concerned about patients developing an

immunity to antibiotics.

c. A larger percentage of patients today are diagnosed with

viruses.

d. A smaller percentage of patients today are diagnosed with ail-

ments that require antibiotics.

e. A larger percentage of patients today are diagnosed with bacter-

ial infections.

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22. A publishing company derives revenue from three main areas.

Digital products constitute 30% of sales and earn 40% of the

proﬁts. Books constitute 60% of sales and earn 50% of the proﬁts.

Audiobooks and other mediums constitute 10% of sales and earn

10% of the proﬁts.

Which of the following can be inferred from the statements

above?

a. Digital products earn higher proﬁts per sale than books or

other mediums.

b. Digital products earn more proﬁt than books or other medi-

ums.

c. The area of digital products is growing more rapidly than

books.

d. Each digital product is more proﬁtable than each book product.

e. Books earn less proﬁt than digital products and products in

other mediums combined.

23. Major businesses have begun near-shoring, which is a practice that

involves moving jobs from cities with a higher cost of living to

lower cost of living locales. The rationale behind near-shoring is

that employees with a lower cost of living will not demand as high

salaries. High-level positions that involve a lot of face time with

clients will remain in the higher-cost-of-living cities. High-level

employees will travel to the lower-cost-of-living locales when they

need to meet with staff.

Which of the following conclusions, if true, provides the

strongest support for the practice of near-shoring?

a. Employees will be willing to relocate in order to keep their

jobs.

b. The cost of travel for high-level employees will not negate the

savings in moving jobs to locations with a lower cost of living.

c. Clients will not need to travel to the lower-cost-of-living locales.

d. Cities with a higher cost of living will not offer ﬁnancial incen-

tives to businesses to stay.

e. Clients will not move out of the cities with a higher cost of

living.

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24. In order for humanitarian effort to relieve starving that results

from a drought to succeed, there must be an efﬁcient

transportation system for water and support from several relief

organizations. At least a dozen trucks that hold liquid are required

for an efﬁcient transportation for water. Each relief organization

involved has pledged to supply trucks. Thus, relief will be brought

to drought victims in the country of Y.

Which of the following is the most important item be

ascertained in order to evaluate the argument presented above?

a. the number of relief organizations involved

b. the availability of gasoline for the trucks

c. the availability of water for transportation

d. the amount of time it would take for the trucks to transport the

water to drought victims

e. the amount of time it would take to begin transporting the

water to drought victims

25. Alexandra has more money than Courtney. Marnie has more

money than Courtney. Alexandra has less money than Danielle.

We can conclude that Courtney has less money than Josie.

Which of the following, if true, would make the argument

above logically incorrect?

a. Danielle has more money than Marnie.

b. Danielle has less money than Courtney.

c. Alexandra has more money than Josie.

d. Josie has more money than Danielle.

e. Josie has less money than Marnie.

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26. Taylor: The requirement that ﬁnancial institutions register with

the Securities and Exchange Commission all securities offered for

sale to the public is pointless because people never read through all

those piles of paper before they buy securities.

Sophia: I disagree. The registration provides a paper trail that

people can use to hold ﬁnancial investors responsible in the event

that securities were not accurately represented.

Sophia responds to Taylor’s argument by

a. providing evidence that people who buy securities actually read

the paperwork about them beforehand.

b. shifting the discussion away from the paper that registration

generates and toward the illegal activity that often occurs in

securities sales.

c. pointing out a beneﬁt of registration, which Taylor’s argument

failed to consider.

d. objecting to Taylor’s dismissal of securities purchasers’ ﬁnancial

literacy.

e. rejecting Taylor’s argument while suggesting that registration

with the Securities and Exchange Commission be required of

all securities.

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27. The two methods available to ABC Car Company to increase fuel

efﬁciency in its vehicles are installing a new type of engine in its

cars and using a lighter metal for the car frames. The use of a

lighter metal in the car frames will increase efﬁciency more than

installation of a new type of engine. Therefore, by using a lighter

metal in the car frames, ABC Car Company will be doing the most

it can to increase fuel efﬁciency in its cars.

If the statements above are true, which of the following must

be true?

a. ABC Car Company has several options for a lighter metal to

use for the car frames.

b. Fuel efﬁciency cannot be increased more by using both meth-

ods together than by only using a lighter metal in the car

frames.

c. The cars that ABC Car Company manufactures are already

quite fuel efﬁcient.

d. ABC Car Company is unsure whether it should bother with

increasing fuel efﬁciency.

e. Installing a new type of engine will be more expensive than

using a lighter metal in the car frames.

28. Demand for olive oil has remained constant during the past few

years. Production and prices have also remained the same during

the past few years, yet Crunchy Organics has seen an increase in its

proﬁts from olive oil by more than 20% over last year’s proﬁts.

The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if any

of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional

premise EXCEPT:

a. An economic recession has enabled Crunchy Organics to ﬁnd

workers who will work for lower wages.

b. Crunchy Organics installed insulation and other energy-saving

measures in its facilities, which resulted in signiﬁcant decreases

in utility bills and a hefty tax refund.

c. Increased rainfall resulted in a more plentiful olive crop.

d. Crunchy Organics was featured in a nationwide news segment

about ethical small businesses, which was viewed by over 10

million people.

e. The demand for olive oil has decreased, and most companies

that produce olive oil have increased their distribution.

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29. Which of the answer choices best completes the argument below?

More cosmetic companies should follow the marketing plan

of Company G. Women want to see how products look on women

who look like themselves because they can get a better idea of how

the makeup will actually look on them. Women are also tired of

being confronted with images ______.

a. of women who can clearly afford more expensive cosmetics than

the average woman.

b. of supermodels who wear evening makeup when most women

shop for a daytime look.

c. of supermodels who perpetuate the stereotype of unrealistic

beauty.

d. of models who fail to make cosmetics look glamorous.

e. of models wearing makeup that is not of a good quality.

30. Township P conducted a survey in which over half of its residents

admitted that they do not recycle, and the township’s recycling

plant has threatened to lay off employees due to a lack of work. In

order to increase recycling, Township P should install recycling

machines in the town center, in which residents can turn in their

bottles, cans, and other recyclables in exchange for ﬁve cents

apiece. This plan would dramatically increase the number of

residents that recycle and save the jobs of many residents.

Which of the following are assumptions made in drawing the

conclusion above?

a. Saving the jobs at the township’s recycling plant would not

result in corresponding layoffs at the township’s trash plant, and

the 5-cent refund would pay for the cost of recycling the addi-

tional materials.

b. The township’s recycling plant can handle the increased quantity

of materials to recycle, and an increase in recycling would save

the jobs that the recycling plant has threatened to eliminate.

c. The recycling machines would induce residents to recycle more, and

the 5-cent refund would pay for the recycling machines over time.

d. The 5-cent refund per item would eventually pay for the cost of

the recycling machines, and the township could afford to pay

the workers that the recycling plant has threatened to lay off.

e. The recycling machines and the 5-cent refund per item would

induce residents to recycle more, and an increase in recycling would

save the jobs that the recycling plant has threatened to eliminate.

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31. Reporter: The Q Virus is a serious disease that can make people

deathly ill. Starting in 1990 and continuing in every subsequent

year, approximately 10,000 people became infected. Before 1990,

there were only about 3,000 cases per year. We can conclude that

the Q Virus has become a dire public health threat.

Public Health Expert: But before 1990, the population was

only one quarter the size that it is now.

The public health expert challenges the reporter’s argument

by doing which of the following?

a. pointing out that the argument makes a conclusion based on a

small sample of the population

b. pointing out that the argument treats facts about some people

in a group as if they were true about all people in that group

c. presenting information that refutes the argument’s assumption

of an incremental increase

d. introducing information that casts doubt on an assumption of

the reporter’s argument

e. questioning the argument’s information about the people in a

particular group

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32. Computer programming classes are offered in the College of Math

and Science. A middle range percentage of students is enrolled in

courses of the College of Math and Science. Economics classes are

offered in the College of Business. The largest percentage of

students is enrolled in courses in the College of Business. Business

writing courses are offered in the College of Humanities. The

lowest percentage of students is enrolled in courses in the College

of Humanities. Therefore, computer information system classes

should be offered in the College of Business.

The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if

which of the following were inserted into the argument as an

additional premise?

a. Courses should be offered in the college in which a greater per-

centage of students is enrolled.

b. Computer information systems courses are more like business

than they are like computer science.

c. More majors in the College of Business require courses in com-

puter information systems than majors in the College of Math

and Science.

d. Computer information systems courses have no relevance to the

humanities.

e. More students major in business because business majors have

the greatest chance of ﬁnding a job.

33. The press reports sensationalist stories in order to get people to

pay attention to the news. In order to generate high ratings,

reporters must only report on topics with great scandal that will

compel people to pay attention. The general public is, therefore,

uninformed about basic current events.

The conclusion drawn above is based on the assumption that

a. the press only cares about high ratings.

b. only scandalous topics will generate high ratings.

c. the general public obtains all its news information from news

outlets that generate high ratings.

d. the press should be rewarded for high quality journalism.

e. the press has tried to generate high ratings with quality news,

and has failed.

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34. This year, the police department of City X reported a relatively

substantial increase in petty crime. The voters of City X

congregated at a city council meeting to express their concern

about this problem. A leader of a community action group stood

up and urged the city council to rehire the 300 police ofﬁcers it

laid off due to budget cuts in the previous year. The city council

president responded that the increase was in the actual number of

victims who bothered to report petty crime to the police.

The city council’s statements, if true, best support which of

the following as a conclusion?

a. The previous presence of an extra 300 police ofﬁcers deterred

criminals from committing petty crime.

b. The laid-off police ofﬁcers committed petty crime because they

were no longer earning a salary.

c. The budget cuts were a symptom of an economic downturn,

which is usually a cause behind a rise in petty crime.

d. It is possible to determine how many people were victims of

petty crime in a year.

e. The percentage of victims of petty crime in the past year is no

larger than the percentage of victims of petty crime this year.

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35. Which of the answer choices most logically completes the

argument given below?

Retail Expert: Companies that manufacture and sell name

brand products often operate under the common misconception

that manufacturing generic products would not be as proﬁtable

because they sell for a lower price. Even though name brand

products sell for a higher price, the cost of production for generic

products does not include any marketing expenses. Thus, the

proﬁts generated from the manufacture and sale of name brand

products and generic products are usually comparable because

____.

a. the market for generic products is large enough and the cost of

production is sufﬁciently low enough to offset the lower prices

charged to customers

b. the market for name brand products is large enough and the

cost of production is sufﬁciently low enough to offset the higher

prices charged to customers

c. the respective markets for name brand products and generic

products are about the same size

d. consumer demand will always exist for name brand products

despite their higher prices

e. most companies are savvy enough to manufacture and sell both

name brand and generic products, and they can purposely bal-

ance out those markets

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36. Many people complain that standardized tests do not actually

measure knowledge because people simply direct their studies

toward the actual test and not the subject. However, standardized

tests do measure knowledge because test takers have no way of

anticipating the questions on the test and therefore have to study

the entire subject.

The conclusion above is properly drawn if which of the

following is assumed?

a. Standardized tests merely ask particular types of questions on

which certain test takers excel.

b. Test takers must be able to anticipate test questions on any stan-

dardized test in order to direct their studies toward the actual

test and not the subject.

c. If a standardized test has questions that cover the entire breadth

of a subject, then the test actually measures knowledge.

d. People who direct their studies toward an actual test do not

study an entire subject for the test.

e. Non-standardized tests actually measure knowledge.

37. Many companies offer their employees the option of ﬂex time.

Flex time is the practice of allowing employees to work their

allotted number of hours on whatever schedule that they choose.

Flex time permits employees to work during the most convenient

hours for them, and results in increased productivity because

employees are no longer as distracted by convenience issues.

Any of the following, if true, is a valid reason for a company

to offer ﬂex time to its employees EXCEPT:

a. The majority of workers in any industry report that they often

conduct e-mail correspondence outside of traditional work

hours.

b. Reports show that employees who work from home are often

less productive, and employees who often utilize work from

home options usually opt for ﬂex time instead when their

employers offer it.

c. Employees who work traditional hours often miss time at work

because of health care appointments.

d. The majority of clients report that they prefer to conduct busi-

ness over the telephone rather than via e-mail.

e. Employees often exceed their lunch hours because they are run-

ning personal errands that are more convenient to do midday.

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Argument Evaluation

Examples of argument evaluation questions are: analyze the argument,

strengthen the argument, weaken the argument, identify reasoning errors

in the argument, or recognize aspects of the argument’s development.

Flaw Questions

These questions ask you to identify the answer choice that makes the argu-

ment incorrect.

■

Which of the following is a ﬂaw in the above argument?

■

The ﬂaw in the argument is that it fails to consider. . . .

■

Which of the following, if true, identiﬁes a ﬂaw in the

argument above?

Strengthen Questions

This type of question requires that you identify the assumption and pick the

answer choice that would strengthen the assumption.

■

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the

conclusion drawn above?

■

Which of the following, if true, would lend the most support

to the view . . . ?

Weaken Questions

This type of question requires that you identify the assumption and pick the

answer choice that would weaken the assumption.

■

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the

conclusion drawn above?

■

Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the

argument?

■

Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the

conclusion above?

Evaluate the Argument

These questions ask you to identify what would be the most useful to assess

the argument in the passage.

■

Which of the following would be most helpful in evaluating

the argument above?

■

Which of the following would be most useful to know in

assessing the conclusion above?

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Argument Evaluation Test-Taking Strategies

1. Identify the assumption.

Identify whether the assumption is a causal connection, a similarity, or a

shift. Strengthen and weaken questions require that you identify the

assumption and pick the choice that would either strengthen or weaken it.

Ask yourself whether the passage creates a causal connection, similarity, or

a shift between two things that does not actually exist. These two items may

be quite similar, designed to trip you up by assuming that they are in fact

related.

2. Identify the relationships between the numbers.

Many GMAT questions use a lot of quantitative information designed to

cause you to assume relationships between sets of numbers when in fact

there is not one. Critical reasoning questions will often use dollar amounts,

quantitative amounts, percentages, interest rates, and inﬂation. Do not

assume that dollar or quantitative amounts necessarily correlate with per-

centages. Furthermore, ask yourself whether interest rates or inﬂation, if

mentioned in the prompt, will actually have a particular effect on the num-

bers in the passage. After you read the question and reread the prompt, dis-

card any extraneous numbers clogging the passage that you do not need to

consider.

3. Remember “except,” “not,” and other opposites.

GMAT questions will occasionally ﬂip the standard format and list a series

of answer choices that strengthen, weaken, or explain the argument. These

questions will ask you to identify the answer choice that does NOT

strengthen, weaken, or explain. Test takers often get tripped up when work-

ing on these questions and start looking for the opposite of what the ques-

tion is asking for. For questions such as these, jot down what the question

is asking for on your scratch paper. For example:

Which of the following, if true, does NOT strengthen the argument above

Remember, that “not strengthen” does not necessarily mean “weaken.”

The correct answer choice may not do either. Note that you should cross off

all answer choices that strengthen the argument and pick the remaining one.

4. Note which argument the question addresses.

Some GMAT questions will include the arguments of multiple parties

instead of just one. Many test takers have a tendency to skim the question

and assume that it is asking you to strengthen, weaken, or point out the ﬂaw

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in the last argument in the passage. However, the question may want you

to work with a different party’s argument. For example:

A asserts that the budget is not accurate because it failed to take into account tax

credits.

B concludes that there were no tax credits because of an accounting error.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen A’s argument?

Make sure that you are addressing the argument that the question directs

you to because one of the answer choices will likely strengthen B’s argument

and trick you.

5. Right result, wrong reason.

Beware of answer choices that list subject matter that could plausibly

strengthen or weaken an argument, be a ﬂaw in the argument, or point out

something useful to evaluate an argument, but that employ incorrect rea-

soning. If multiple answer choices seem plausible to you at ﬁrst glance, take

a closer look at the reasoning in them. For example:

A dog food company was concerned about failing to adhere

to its budget in the current calendar year. In order to solve

this problem, the company decided to move its headquar-

ters to a different ofﬁce building with a lower rent. Upper

management concluded that moving the company’s

headquarters in the next year would result in sufﬁcient

savings to meet its budgetary requirements.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the

argument?

a. After the company paid for moving costs, it would not

earn back the rental savings from the new location for an

additional two years—correct answer

b. The company failed to consider that the new building

has higher utility bills—incorrect answer

Do you see why? Both answers provide reasons that the new building will

not provide the savings that the company believes it will. However, choice

a speciﬁcally negates savings that the company’s plan to move will allegedly

generate. Choice b provides another reason that could plausibly negate the

savings, but it is not conclusive because the answer does not speciﬁcally say

that the higher utility bills would cancel out the savings generated by the

lower rent. The reasoning here is not sufﬁciently thorough to be the best

answer to weaken the argument.

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Set 3

Now it is time to answer GMAT Critical Reasoning practice questions that

have been designed to test your argument evaluation skills. Good luck!

38. Vegetarians tend to live longer than people who eat meat. This

does not show that vegetarianism causes people to live longer

because vegetarians as a group tend to exercise more regularly than

meat eaters.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the

argument above?

a. A vegetarian who does not exercise regularly is more likely to

start exercising than a person who eats meat.

b. Among vegetarians, most of those who start to exercise regu-

larly early in life tend to maintain the practice later in life.

c. Among people who exercise regularly, those who do not eat

meat tend to live as long as those who eat meat.

d. Vegetarianism tends to cause people to engage in other healthy

habits besides regular exercise.

e. A person who eats meat and gives up regular exercise is much

more likely than a vegetarian to never resume regular exercise.

39. The city of Springﬁeld has received a proposal to upgrade its metro

system. An environmental group has argued that increasing the

number of trains and the metro’s area of coverage within the city will

result in a 20% increase in rider capacity, reducing the need for

people to drive cars. The city of Springﬁeld should grant the

proposal to solve the problem of trafﬁc congestion on the city roads.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the

argument?

a. Most people in Springﬁeld are unwilling to switch from driving

to public transit.

b. Increasing the metro’s passenger capacity will require the trains

to travel at a slower speed.

c. Most people who drive in Springﬁeld commute to places in the

city that the metro does not currently reach.

d. The proposed upgrade to the metro system will increase air

pollution.

e. The metro system is currently not ﬁlled to capacity during the

rush hour commute.

501 GMAT

Questions

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40. President of Fundraising: Donations to our organization have

decreased steadily over the past ﬁve years. Many individuals at this

meeting have suggested that the poor economy is the reason. I

disagree. My research has indicated that donors to this cause tend

to donate the same amounts and in the same frequency regardless

of their income. I believe that we need to reexamine our mailings

so that we can ﬁnd a better way to remind our donors about the

important work that our organization does.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the

fundraising president’s theory?

a. The majority of the donors to this organization have not suf-

fered ﬁnancially in the downturned economy.

b. The organization’s mailings used to contain prepaid postage on the

return envelopes for donations, but have not for the past ﬁve years.

c. The organization has decreased its charitable work over the past

ﬁve years in order to increase its fundraising effort.

d. The organization has not updated its mailing list for the last

seven years.

e. The majority of the donors are above age 75 and have difﬁculty

reading smaller print.

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41. Dr. Roberts, a dentist, gave a speech to a dental convention in

which she argued that the recent rise in tooth enamel decay in the

population came from a new brand of toothbrush. This brand used

a new type of plastic for the bristles, which Dr. Roberts claimed

wears down the enamel of the teeth over time. Dr. Roberts

concluded her remarks by stating that the consistent high rate of

soft drink consumption was not a signiﬁcant contributing factor to

the recent rise in tooth enamel decay.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the

view that the new brand of toothbrush was responsible for the rise

in tooth enamel decay mentioned above?

a. The brand Dr. Roberts mentioned is the only brand to use the

new type of plastic for the bristles.

b. Consistent heavy consumption of soft drinks does not increase

tooth enamel decay over time provided that patients brush

twice a day.

c. This brand of toothbrush has a 70% market share.

d. The majority of Dr. Roberts’s patients used this brand of tooth-

brush for a signiﬁcant period of time.

e. The company that sold this brand of toothbrush sent hundreds

of thousands of samples to dentists for free giveaways to dental

patients.

42. People between the ages of 40 and 50 purchase more vacations to

Mexico than any other age group. Therefore, the Mexico Tourist

Board should convince hotels and resorts in Mexico to offer more

family friendly packages and services.

Which of the following indicates a ﬂaw in the reasoning above?

a. The author assumes that the majority of people between the

ages of 40 and 50 have children.

b. The author assumes that the majority of people between the

ages of 40 and 50 want family friendly vacations.

c. The author assumes that the majority of people between the

ages of 40 and 50 are married.

d. The author does not supply information about people in other

age groups.

e. The author assumes that the majority of people between the

ages of 40 and 50 can afford a vacation in Mexico.

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43. Last year, approximately 1 million smokers quit smoking. This

year, the number of smokers who quit is approximately 3 million.

Thus, we can conclude that the number of smokers who will quit is

increasing and that the number of smokers who will quit next year

will be even higher.

Which of the following statements best supports the

conclusion above?

a. The 1 million smokers who quit last year represented the lowest

number in six years.

b. An increase in government regulation regarding health care

usually results in an increase in health care coverage of smoking

cessation programs.

c. This year, a government grant to a program called Light Up

No More brought the number of smokers who quit temporarily

up from the average number of 1 million per year.

d. This year, health insurance companies raised premiums 20%

for customers who smoke, and they plan to institute a 5%

increase for next year.

e. The estimated number of smokers who quit annually is actually

based on a representative sample of the population rather than

the entire population.

44. Production of paper has always been costly, but the tariffs on a box

of paper currently make domestic paper production less expensive.

Therefore, if we want to obtain paper in the cheapest way possible,

we should produce all our paper in our own country.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the

argument above?

a. Producing paper domestically will create more jobs.

b. Tariffs on boxes of paper are the same ﬂat cost on every box no

matter the size.

c. Companies that produce a product have a high incentive to

control the cost of production.

d. The ﬁnal price of a product after adding in the tariff is higher

than the impact that production start-up costs have on the ﬁnal

price of a product.

e. Foreign paper producers can produce more paper overall than a

domestic producer.

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45. The retail industry suffers from the problem of high employee

turnover. Since wages remain stagnant for employees who work in

stores, employees have no incentive to remain with the same

company over time. The Namaste Clothing Co. has a much higher

retail employee retention rate than other retail companies. The

human resources department published a report that stated that

the company’s success is due to qualitative factors that the

company offers, such as a pension plan, comp time for salaried

employees, casual Fridays, water coolers, and high-end computers

with great tech support.

Which of the following, if true, identiﬁes a ﬂaw in the argument

above?

a. The human resources report assumes that employees care about

the qualitative factors listed.

b. The human resources report erroneously lists pension and

comp time for salaried employees as qualitative factors, when

they are actually related to employee compensation.

c. The human resources report lists qualitative factors that would

apply only to company employees who do not work in stores.

d. The human resources report assumes that employees have

remained with the company because of something the company

has offered them.

e. The human resources report did not list all the qualitative

advantages that the company offers its employees.

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46. In 2000, women’s clothing retailers reported that 20% of their

sales were for sizes 0–4, 35% of their sales were for sizes 6–12, and

45% of their sales were for sizes 14–16. In 2010, women’s clothing

retailers reported that those percentages were 25%, 45%, and

30%, respectively. We can conclude that the average adult woman

was the same size in 2010 that she was 10 years ago.

Which of the following, if true, best explains the conclusion

above?

a. The amount of clothing purchased in 2010 was greater than the

amount of clothing purchased in 2000.

b. Vanity sizing was much more prevalent in 2000 than in 2010.

c. A greater percentage of slimmer woman bought clothing in

2010 than in 2000.

d. The number of women who purchased clothing in 2000 was

greater than the number of women who purchased clothing in

2010.

e. Most of the designers who designed clothes in 2010 had not yet

earned their degrees in fashion design in 2000.

47. The average law ﬁrm pays entry-level attorneys an annual salary of

$70,000. Ninety-ﬁve percent of law school students have jobs upon

graduation. Therefore, of that 95%, the average law student will

earn an annual salary of $70,000.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines

the argument above?

a. Most law students who have jobs upon graduation were hired

by small law ﬁrms.

b. The average salary offered by law ﬁrms varies by geographical

region.

c. Fewer students enroll in law school today than 10 years ago.

d. The law students who do not have jobs upon graduation did not

pass the bar exam.

e. Over half of law students who have jobs upon graduation were

not hired by law ﬁrms.

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48. Company XYZ manufactures and sells products that help people

quit smoking. This year, Company XYZ reported an increase in

sales overall and in each individual smoking cessation product. The

entire market for products that help people quit smoking also

reported an increase in sales overall. The product with the highest

increase was the patch. The product with the lowest increase was

the gum. We can conclude from this information that the number

of people who have quit smoking has increased this year.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into

question the explanation above?

a. Most people who quit smoking reported that their greatest suc-

cess was with the gum.

b. Most people who quit smoking reported that they did not buy

smoking cessation products from Company XYZ.

c. Most people who quit smoking reported that they relapsed in

approximately 10 months.

d. Most people who quit smoking reported that they bought mul-

tiple smoking cessation products at once.

e. Most people who quit smoking reported that they purchased

whatever smoking cessation product their doctor recom-

mended.

49. The rise of college tuition was widely expected to result in an

overall increase in the total amount that people in this country

spent on college tuition. However, the exact opposite occurred.

The rise in tuition occurred along with a rise in merit scholarships.

The result is that college students in this country actually spend

less on college than previously.

Which if the following would NOT be useful in evaluating

the reasoning above?

a. the total cost of tuition and the monetary amount of the schol-

arships

b. the total cost of tuition and the percentage of students who take

advantage of scholarships

c. the total cost of tuition considering scholarships and the cost of

room and board

d. the total cost of tuition considering scholarships and the break-

down of student attendance at public versus private colleges

e. the total cost of tuition considering scholarships and the num-

ber of students who attend college

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50. The state legislature has become concerned with the rise in drunk

driving accidents on state highways. In an effort to curtail this

problem, the legislature raised the driving age from 17 to 18. The

governor lauded this effort, declaring to the press that this new law

will drastically reduce drunk driving accidents.

All the following statements strengthen the argument above

EXCEPT:

a. Seventeen-year-old drivers were involved in over half of the

drunk driving accidents on state highways.

b. A famous study reported that the alcoholism rate in minors was

exorbitantly high in this state.

c. A survey of teenagers found that the majority of teenagers did

not believe that alcohol consumption signiﬁcantly impaired

their driving.

d. A report issued by the department of highway safety asserted

that less driving experience made teenagers slower to react to

hazards on the highway.

e. The state police’s statistics showed that most drunk driving

accidents occurred between 10

P.M. and 6 A.M., and the depart-

ment of motor vehicles issued only limited drivers licenses to

teenagers, which permitted driving only during daylight hours.

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51. Te n p e o p l e w e r e h o s p i t a l i z e d f o r s e v e r e s t o m a c h p r o b l e m s w i t h i n

one day after drinking Zippo’s Cola. The Zippo Cola Company

fervently argued that its cola drink was not responsible for the

stomach problems and that the company was in no way responsible

for anyone’s illness. Instead, Zippo Cola released a statement to the

public that it believed that the company that makes the soda cans,

Carrie’s Canning Inc., used an ingredient in the metal that made

people sick. Margie Smith, one of the patients, told her doctor that

she was convinced that she ate bad shellﬁsh. All 10 patients ate lunch

at the same restaurant that day. The doctors concluded that both the

restaurant and the cola were responsible for the patients’ illness.

Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious

doubt on Zippo’s argument?

a. Carrie’s Canning, Inc. also supplied cans from the same can

supply to the Bubbles Orange Soda Company, and no one who

drank that soda became ill.

b. All 10 patients ate shrimp scampi as an appetizer at the restau-

rant that day.

c. All 10 patients ate meals at the restaurant that had no overlap-

ping ingredients with each other’s meals.

d. Seven of the patients drank regular Zippo Cola and three of the

patients drank Diet Zippo Cola.

e. Margie Smith’s lunch was a pasta dish with mussels.

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52. The Department of Safe Transportation reported that 73% of all

accidents involve people who are supposed to wear glasses or

contact lenses. We can reduce car accidents if department

employees ask drivers whether they wear glasses or contact lenses,

and make a notation on the driver’s license, every time drivers

renew their license.

The argument is ﬂawed because it fails to consider that

a. drivers who are supposed to wear glasses or contact lenses will

wear them while driving.

b. driver’s license renewals will catch a fair number of drivers who

have not notiﬁed the Department that they are required to wear

glasses or contact lenses while driving.

c. drivers who are supposed to wear glasses or contact lenses are

not aware of it.

d. a vision test will let drivers know that they need to see an oph-

thalmologist.

e. the departments of transportation in other states will not imple-

ment the same policy.

53. University Z created eight intramural sports teams in order to

combat obesity among the student population. The university

estimated that approximately 55% of students were overweight,

including 35% who were obese. Seventy-ﬁve percent of students

signed up and participated regularly in the intramural sports teams

for the entire year. At the end of the year, 55% of students

remained overweight, and 35% remained obese.

Which of the following, if true, best explains why the

university’s plan failed?

a. The students who participated in intramural sports continued

to have extremely poor eating habits that exercise could not

offset.

b. The students who participated in intramural sports were not

active previously.

c. The students who participated in intramural sports included

those who also participated in ofﬁcial university sports teams.

d. The students who participated in intramural sports possessed

various athletic abilities.

e. The students who participated in intramural sports were some-

what active previously.

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54. Dr. Roberts, a dentist, gave a speech to a dental convention in

which she argued that the recent rise in tooth enamel decay in the

population came from a new brand of toothbrush. This brand used

a new type of plastic for the bristles, which Dr. Roberts claimed

wears down the enamel of the teeth over time. Dr. Roberts added

that the consistent soft drink consumption was not a signiﬁcant

contributing factor to the recent rise in tooth enamel decay. She

then concluded her remarks by stating that tooth enamel decay in

patients will signiﬁcantly decrease if every dentist convinces her

patients not to use this brand of toothbrush.

The argument is ﬂawed primarily because the author

a. assumed that the cause of increased tooth enamel decay in her

patients is the same as in every other dentist’s patients.

b. assumed that consistent soft drink consumption was not a sig-

niﬁcant contributing factor to the recent rise in tooth enamel

decay.

c. assumed that the new type of plastic used for the bristles was

the cause of the rise in tooth enamel decay in the general popu-

lation.

d. assumed that this brand of toothbrush is the only brand to use

the type of plastic for the bristles that Dr. Roberts claims wears

down tooth enamel over time.

e. assumed that because consistent soft drink consumption was not

a signiﬁcant contributing factor to tooth enamel decay in her

patients, then it was not in any other dentist’s patients.

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55. Television Executive: The largest demographic in this country is

senior citizens. Senior citizens are also more likely to not work

than the rest of the population because they have retired, and

therefore spend more time at home. The majority of senior

citizens dislike reality television. We can therefore conclude that

our network should plan fewer reality TV programs in the future.

Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the

television executive’s argument?

a. Reality television programs cost less to produce than other

types of programs.

b. Senior citizens are not the largest demographic that watches

television.

c. A smaller percentage of senior citizens are currently retired

than in previous generations.

d. The reality TV program called The Golden Years is extremely

popular among senior citizens.

e. Retired senior citizens generally spend their daytime hours

engaged in activities such as gardening, walking, and taking care

of grandchildren.

56. A company has decided to implement a new employee evaluation

program in which pay raises will be determined by an employee’s

overall rating given by his or her supervisor. Upper management

concluded that this new evaluation program would result in pay

raises for the employees with the most meritorious job performance.

Which of the following, if true, does NOT cast doubt on

upper management’s belief that the new program will result in pay

raises based on merit?

a. Supervisors’ judgment of what constitutes “exceeds expecta-

tions” is subjective.

b. All employees who meet revenue goals cannot receive “does not

meet expectations” on their employee evaluations.

c. The three ratings of “does not meet expectations,” “meets

expectations,” and “exceeds expectations” do not provide

enough information to differentiate the various levels of

employee job performance.

d. Supervisors who like their employees tend to rate them higher

than supervisors who dislike their employees.

e. The new employee evaluation program records the information

in a database that the human resources department can access

when processing pay raises.

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57. A recent economic downturn has reminded people of the

importance of saving, both for emergencies and for retirement.

The average household saved 5% of its income in the past year,

and that number is predicted to grow over the next 10 years. The

result will be that banks will have more money to lend to

customers to start businesses and buy homes. We can conclude

that economic activity will grow over the next 10 years as a result

of this ethic in saving money.

Which of the following would most weaken the argument?

a. People who place a greater percentage of their income into

their savings accounts have been and will be underemployed

over the next 10 years.

b. People who place a greater percentage of their income into

their savings accounts will take out loans to start businesses.

c. People who place a greater percentage of their income into

their savings accounts will also pay down their credit card debt.

d. People who place a greater percentage of their income into

their savings accounts will focus their spending on only neces-

sary home improvements.

e. People who place a great percentage of their income into their

savings accounts will enable the banks to curtail fee increases.

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58. Retail stores that pay their sales associates based on commission

pay their employees wages that vary with the sales dollar amount

for which each employee is responsible. In the retail business last

year, stores that paid their employees on commission showed that

worker productivity was 17% higher than that of their competitors

that paid their sales associates an hourly wage.

If, on the basis of the evidence above, it is argued that paying

sales associates on commission increases worker productivity, which

of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument?

a. Retail stores that pay their sales associates on commission have

experienced that costs other than wages, such as rent, utilities,

and inventory processing, make up an increased proportion of

the total cost of operating each store.

b. Retail stores that pay their sales associates on commission have

more troubling hiring workers because many applicants are

concerned about making little money on days when the stores

have few customers.

c. Sales associates who earn money on commission have paychecks

that are 22% higher than those of sales associates who are paid

an hourly wage.

d. The productivity results cited for sales associates in retail stores

are also true for telemarketers.

e. The majority of customers who shop in retail stores report that

they purchase items without assistance from sales associates.

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59. College President: This state’s families actually do not pay less for

tuition at public colleges than private colleges. Each family in this

state pays taxes, a portion of which go to state colleges. When you

add the amount of those taxes with the cost of tuition at a public

college, the cost is actually the same as tuition at a private college.

The college president’s argument is ﬂawed because it fails to

consider that

a. the cost of tuition at a private college is higher than the cost of

state taxes paid toward a public college and tuition at a public

college.

b. a portion of taxes that each family in the state pays goes to pub-

lic colleges even if no members of that family attend college.

c. many private colleges offer scholarships to students who

demonstrate superior academic achievement.

d. a portion of every family’s taxes in the state goes to public col-

leges even if members of that family attend a private college, so

the taxes are not actually part of the cost of tuition.

e. the price of tuition at a public college depends on the state’s

budget.

60. Economist: Large price club type stores will eventually drive small,

independently owned stores out of business. Price clubs can price

their goods much lower per item because they sell products in bulk

sizes. Small stores simply cannot compete with those prices.

Which of the following, if true, does NOT weaken the

argument above?

a. Price club stores may be able to offer lower prices, but they only

sell a limited variety of goods, and customers will need to shop

elsewhere to ﬁnd the remainder of the goods that they want.

b. An increasing majority of customers use public transportation

instead of cars, and live in small apartments rather than houses,

so they cannot transport or store a large number of goods.

c. Many customers desire to support independently owned busi-

nesses, and will shop there rather than at price clubs even if it

means paying higher prices.

d. Independently owned stores accept coupons, and most customers

report that when they factor in coupons, they wind up paying the

same price at independently owned stores as they do in price clubs.

e. Price club customers report that they earn back the price of

their membership fee within the ﬁrst two months of purchases.

501 GMAT

Questions

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61. Osteoporosis is a disease that results in a severe weakening of

bones. A diet rich in calcium throughout one’s lifetime is commonly

known to be the best prevention against osteoporosis. Sources of

calcium include legumes, leafy green vegetables, and dairy

products. A medical group devoted to raising the awareness of

osteoporosis recommends that people consume more leafy green

vegetables than dairy products in order to raise their calcium intake.

Which of the following, if true, would most strongly support

the position above?

a. Dairy products typically contain fat, and leafy green vegetables

do not.

b. Leafy green vegetables provide many other health beneﬁts,

most notably a higher iron content.

c. Nutritionists recommend ﬁve to eight servings of leafy green

vegetables per day, and only three servings of dairy per day.

d. The body’s absorption rate for calcium in leafy green vegetables

is 50%, and for dairy products is 30%.

e. The farming of leafy green vegetables uses fewer environmental

resources than the production of dairy products.

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62. Each unit in an apartment complex is supplied with a refrigerator,

stove, microwave, and dishwasher. In order to keep the appliances

functioning, the apartment complex employs a full-time super who

is on call Monday through Friday from 9

A.M. to 5 P.M. Without

repairs, the appliances would eventually stop working and would

be expensive to replace. We can conclude that the apartment

complex should continue to employ the super full-time.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken

the argument above?

a. Most tenants discover that their appliances are not working

during the evening hours.

b. Apartment complexes that install dishwashers in their units use

a much greater amount of water than those without dishwashers

in their units.

c. Appliances become obsolete in only a few years, which makes

repairing them less practical and more costly then buying new

appliances.

d. Employing a super full-time requires beneﬁts, such as medical

insurance and paid vacation time, in addition to a salary.

e. This apartment complex uses electric stoves, and gas stoves usu-

ally have lower utility bills.

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63. The textbook publishing industry reported a consistent annual

increase in e-book sales. For two years, publishers of law textbooks

offered a special promotion, in which the e-book version was

offered free along with the hard copy. Publishers of law textbooks

expected this exposure to e-books to ease law students’ transition

away from hard copies and result in a decline in sales of hard

copies in favor of e-books. Surprisingly, this decline did not

occur.

Which of the following would be the most useful to

determine in order to evaluate why the publishers’ promotion did

not achieve the expected results?

a. the average age of law students and their respective familiarity

with the e-book format before the promotion

b. the weight of the average hard copy law textbook

c. the percentage of courses covered by the textbooks with the

promotion

d. the percentage of law students who previously bought e-books

compared to the percentage of undergraduate students who

bought e-books

e. the majority of law students who had open-book exams and

took their exams on their laptop computers, which required an

exam software that blocked student access to all their computer

ﬁles during the exam

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64. The press has consistently reported stories about the adverse

effects of soy on people with existing thyroid problems, and about

the environmental problems that stem from farming soybeans. A

national health organization stated that fewer people reported

consuming soy products in place of meat and dairy, and an

increasing number of people reported concern that they might be

allergic to soy. Therefore, we can conclude that soy consumption

will decrease over the next few years.

Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the

conclusion above?

a. Soy is a common ingredient in processed foods that contain

meat.

b. People do not discover a food allergy until after they have had

an adverse reaction to food.

c. Many people suspect that they have a thyroid problem even

when they do not actually have one.

d. People base many of their food choices on the effect they have

on the environment.

e. Meat and dairy products tend to be more expensive than soy

products.

Formulating and Evaluating a Plan of Action

Examples of formulating and evaluating a plan of action questions are: iden-

tify the effectiveness of a plan, identify whether the plan is appropriate to

address the problem at hand, recognize whether another plan would be

more efﬁcient, identify factors that would strengthen a plan, and identify

factors that would weaken a plan.

Identify the Effectiveness of a Plan/Recognize Whether Another

Plan Would Be More Efficient

These questions will ask you to identify whether a proposed plan will

address the actual course of a problem effectively. These questions will also

ask you to recognize whether another plan would provide a better solution

to the problem.

■

Which of the following is the LEAST important to know to

determine the success of the plan?

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■

Which of the following is NOT important to know for the

plan?

■

Which of the following would help to explain why the plan

failed?

Strengthen the Plan

These questions will ask you to identify the answer choice that would

strengthen the plan in the passage.

■

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason

to expect the plan to succeed?

■

Which of the following, if added to the plan, would be most

effective in helping the above plan?

Weaken the Plan

These questions will ask you to identify the answer choice that would

weaken the plan in the passage.

■

Which of the following, if true, would provide the most serious

disadvantage to the plan above?

■

Which of the following, if true, would most likely worsen the

plan above?

Formulating and Evaluating a Plan of Action

Test-Taking Strategies

1. Identify the assumption.

This strategy is in each section of this book for the Critical Reasoning por-

tion of the GMAT

, but it bears repeating. Most of the plans in this type

of question are either business related or government related. Do not let

your own knowledge of these subject matters cause you to make assump-

tions about the plan. Instead, ﬁnd the gap in the reasoning and identify

whether it is a causal connection, shift, or similarity.

2. Identify whether the plan could actually address the problem.

If the passage states that the plan failed, evaluate the plan and see whether

it actually could have addressed the problem. What was the ﬂaw in the plan?

Did the plan fail to consider something? Did it address an effect of the

problem rather than the source? If the answer choices list alternative or

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additional plans designed to rectify the problem that the original plan failed

to solve, look for answer choices with plans that have the same ﬂawed rea-

soning and eliminate them.

3. Watch out for the numbers.

Since many of the plans that you will evaluate on the test will have to do

with business or government, they will likely contain numbers. Watch

out for assumed relationships between raw numbers and percentages.

You s ho ul d a ls o be aw ar e o f a ny co mp ar is on s b et ween co mb in at io ns of

different variables. If the numbers are vague and you cannot figure out

how anyone could eliminate answers, remember that the question may

ask you for an answer choice that is the only one for which you can draw

a conclusion.

4. Identify reasons for the plan’s failure or success.

Many formulating and evaluating a plan of action questions will ask you to

identify the answer choice that explains the reason for a plan’s failure or

success. If you see this type of question and then reread the passage, you

could beneﬁt from thinking of your own reasons before looking at the

answer choices, much like thinking of an argument’s conclusion before

reading the conclusions that the answer choices offer in argument con-

struction questions.

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Set 4

Now it is time to answer GMAT Critical Reasoning practice questions that

have been designed to test your formulating and evaluating a plan of action

skills. Good luck!

65. Millipoint is a large city that employs many people from the

surrounding suburban communities. Suburban Commute

Transportation Company must expand its services for the

increasing number of people who commute to Millipoint.

Suburban Commute could replace its trains with double-decker

trains, add 10% more ferries, or add 25% more buses. Trains

typically spend the least amount of time in trafﬁc, which is

important because they run every 15 minutes. Ferries have a

capacity of 75 people apiece. Buses have a capacity of about 50

people apiece and tend to spend time in trafﬁc. After considering

all options, Suburban Commute decided to replace its trains with

double-decker trains.

Which of the following, if true, could represent the most

serious disadvantage for Suburban Commute’s plan?

a. Two new highways were constructed that lead into Millipoint.

b. Double-decker trains require twice the amount of boarding

time as single-level trains.

c. A competitor has signiﬁcantly increased its use of the same train

tracks that Suburban Commute uses.

d. Double-decker trains running against rush hour trafﬁc tend to

be nearly empty.

e. Double-decker ferries are available.

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66. The Consumer Watchdog Agency reports that 65% of red snapper

sold in grocery stores and restaurants is actually less expensive

types of ﬁsh fraudulently labeled. In an effort to clamp down on

this fraud, the agency has created a new consumer conﬁdence

stamp that would mark packages of red snapper as inspected and

veriﬁed by the Consumer Watchdog Agency.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason

to expect that the Consumer Watchdog Agency will succeed in

decreasing the percentage of less expensive types of ﬁsh fraudu-

lently sold as red snapper?

a. Grocery store inventory managers are usually the individuals

who place other ﬁsh in the red snapper section of the fresh ﬁsh

counter.

b. Restaurant owners have a common practice of passing off other

ﬁsh as red snapper.

c. Most customers are unable to tell the difference between red

snapper and other types of ﬁsh.

d. The majority of red snapper sold is sold fresh off the boat with-

out packaging.

e. The ﬁshing industry is interested in curtailing the fraud in red

snapper sales.

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67. Potter Shipping, Inc. had a relatively high failure rate in delivering

packages on time. In order to address this problem, the CEO

promised drivers a 10% year-end bonus if they succeeded in

delivering 90% of their packages on time.

All the following, if true, would help to explain why the

CEO’s bonus incentive plan failed to achieve a signiﬁcantly better

on-time delivery rate EXCEPT

a. highway construction projects caused drivers to spend hours of

time sitting in trafﬁc.

b. most company trucks had faulty GPS units.

c. drivers were responsible to pay for their own fuel, which was

expensive, and faster driving consumed greater quantities of

gasoline.

d. other shipping companies paid their drivers a 15% bonus if they

delivered 90% of their packages on time, and many Potter driv-

ers wound up leaving their jobs within six months to work for

competitors.

e. most drivers believed the 10% bonus to be a great incentive to

increase on-time deliveries.

68. A group called People for the Preservation of the Environment has

published a damaging report about the pollution caused by Trikas

Oil Reﬁneries. Although not accused of any illegal activity, Trikas

has decided that it must decrease the air pollution it generates in

order to placate public opinion. In order to accomplish this goal,

Trikas plans on upgrading its reﬁneries with the Zeebot

Puriﬁcation System.

The adoption of the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System would most

likely worsen Trikas Oil Reﬁneries’ problem if

a. the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System costs a signiﬁcant amount of

money.

b. the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System malfunctions 10% of the time.

c. the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System will take six months to imple-

ment.

d. the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System takes a lot of manpower to

maintain.

e. the Zeebot Puriﬁcation System results in a signiﬁcant increase

in water pollution.

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69. The government of Woodrock decided ﬁve years ago to increase

the number of preventative care medical services covered in the

government’s free health care program for seniors.

Which of the following would be the LEAST important in

determining whether the increased number of preventative care

medical services would be likely to achieve better health for

Woodrock’s senior population?

a. the percentage of seniors who seek preventative care medical

services

b. the success rate of preventative care medical services

c. the cost of preventative care medical services

d. the senior population’s access to facilities that provide preventa-

tive care medical services

e. the percentage of seniors who utilize the government’s free

health care program for seniors

70. In the upcoming elections, the Grow the Economy Now party’s

candidates have proposed a government tax break to individuals

and companies who invest in start-up businesses. The plan would

exempt these individuals and companies from paying any taxes on

the proﬁts from these investments for ﬁve years.

All the following would NOT be important to know in

determining whether the tax break would provide an incentive to

invest in start-up businesses EXCEPT

a. the amount of capital required to start a business.

b. the tax bracket of the average individual investor.

c. the most common types of start-up businesses created.

d. the number of years a start-up business requires to earn a proﬁt.

e. the number of candidates in the Grow the Economy Now party

who have a history in investing in start-up businesses.

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71. The Lightening Tread Shoe Company, in an effort to boost

revenue, has decided to offer free shipping on its website for all

orders over $22.00. The cost of shipping these orders will reduce

the proﬁt by $4.00 per shipment. However, management believes

that the savings to customers will result in more orders.

Which of the following would be NOT be important to know in

determining whether this plan will result in an increase in revenue?

a. the current price of packing materials

b. whether competitors of the Lightening Tread Shoe Company

also offer free shipping on orders over $22.00

c. changes in the average price of an order

d. changes in postal rates

e. whether customers purchased the same amount of merchandise

spread out in several smaller orders

72. A citywide survey was conducted in the past year, and revealed that

35% of employees do not know where the ﬁre exits are in their

places of employment. Previously, a private safety company would

conduct annual ﬁre drills in all commercial city buildings that

consisted of more than four ﬂoors. In order to increase employee

knowledge of the location of ﬁre exits, the city has arranged to pay

ﬁre department employees a bonus to conduct a second annual ﬁre

drill in these buildings.

Which additional plan, combined with the plan just outlined,

will be most effective in helping the city address the high

percentage of employees who do not know the location of the ﬁre

exits in their workplace?

a. hiring the private safety company to conduct annual ﬁre drills

in city buildings with less than four ﬂoors

b. paying ﬁre department employees a bonus to conduct a second

annual ﬁre drill in city buildings with less than four ﬂoors

c. hiring the private safety company to conduct two annual ﬁre

drills in all city buildings

d. ﬁnding a new private safety company to conduct the annual ﬁre

drills

e. threaten to ﬁne companies with over 35% of employees unable

to identify the location of the ﬁre exits

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73. Plan: The government of Tulpso was concerned about the high

level of credit card debt that its average citizen carried, and about

the high amount of credit card debt the population carried as a

nation. The government convinced the banks in the credit card

industry to offer a 4% lower APR for existing debt to any customer

who paid off more than the monthly interest. The government

subsidized the difference in interest rates.

Result: Many Tulpso citizens still carry the same amount of

debt as before.

Further Information: The annual rate of inﬂation since the

government-subsidized reduced interest rate on existing credit

card debt has been below 3%, and every Tulpso citizen who

carried credit card debt paid more than the monthly interest of

their credit card bills.

In light of the further information, which of the following, if

true, does most to explain the result that followed implementation

of the plan?

a. The most recent reduction in APR was only the second of its

kind in the last 20 years.

b. The Tulpso credit card repayment system required citizens to

pay their bills in person.

c. The majority of citizens in Tulspo needed this program to pay

down their credit card debt.

d. The prices of food and other necessities rose to a level that

required citizens to charge similar amounts to what they repaid.

e. The government offered the reduced APR at a time when a

large number of people were poverty-stricken.

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74. The population in the country of Xusa has remained stable for the

last 20 years and is expected to remain so. The airline industry has

decided to triple the number of ﬂights offered to current

destinations in the next year.

Which of the following would be most helpful to justify the

airline industry’s plan?

a. The largest segment of the population has reached retirement

age.

b. Businesses have reported a substantial rise in attendance at

trade shows around the nation.

c. The price of airplane fuel has decreased.

d. Companies that produce airplane meals have offered substan-

tially better wholesale prices to airlines.

e. A famous university study has reported that the percentage of

the population with a fear of ﬂying has dropped signiﬁcantly

over the last 10 years.

75. The customer service department of the E-Z Movie Rental Co.

has reported a 15% increase in customer service complaints

regarding damaged or unplayable discs in the past year. The CEO

announced that employees responsible for packing the discs into

mailer envelopes are required to perform a new 3-step process to

check for scratches and other visible defects on the discs. Over the

next year, the customer service department reported a 5% increase

in customer complaints regarding damaged or unplayable discs.

All the following, if true, would explain why the new 3-step

process failed to achieve the company goal EXCEPT

a. the paper that the mailer envelopes were made of was a particu-

larly abrasive type of paper.

b. the warehouse employees did not comply with the new 3-step

process when mailing out discs.

c. most of the customers who complained about damaged or

unplayable discs had damaged those discs themselves.

d. the majority of the discs’ defects were visible defects.

e. damaged or unplayable discs were not taken out of circulation.

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76. The Whigham Insurance Company offers All Risk insurance to

hotels, resorts, and other large structures. All Risk insurance covers

everything that is not listed in the exclusions. There has been a

recent increase in earthquakes and Whigham is concerned that

earthquake coverage will be too expensive to maintain. However,

Whigham would still prefer to avoid listing earthquakes in the list

of exclusions for the future if possible.

Which of the following strategies would be most likely to

minimize Company X’s losses on the policies?

a. insuring only those customers whose buildings did not experi-

ence earthquake damage in the past 20 years

b. insuring only those customers who cannot obtain earthquake

coverage through another insurance provider

c. expanding its marketing campaign to attract customers with

buildings far away from fault lines

d. insuring only those customers who can afford to pay for earth-

quake coverage for their buildings

e. insuring other disasters such as tornadoes, hurricanes, and mon-

soons, in the hopes of maintaining customer loyalty

77. A company that manufactures laundry detergent has decided to

switch from petroleum-based ingredients to plant-based

ingredients. The company believes that the switch will decrease its

environmental footprint and address frequent customer complaints

that the detergent tends to cause the color in clothes to fade

quickly.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to provide a

justiﬁcation for the company’s planned switch?

a. The cost of petroleum-based ingredients and plant-based ingre-

dients is the same.

b. The company plans to move its manufacturing overseas.

c. The annual sales of laundry detergent have decreased over the

past two years.

d. The company will continue to manufacture stain remover pens

that have stronger ingredients.

e. Consumer spending on higher-quality clothing is anticipated to

grow over the next 10 years.

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78. Currently, the market for ice cream is dominated by dairy-based

ice cream. To increase its revenue, the Simply Soy marketing

department developed a new campaign for its line of soy-based ice

cream ﬂavors. The marketing team convinced the product

development team that it should amplify the food coloring used in

all the ﬂavors, and the marketing team would release ads with

pictures of the ice cream designed by a food stylist.

What condition will make the marketing department’s plan

more likely to increase revenue?

a. The food coloring used in the Simply Soy ﬂavors consists of all

natural ingredients.

b. The number of people who are lactose intolerant has increased.

c. People who buy ice cream are not bothered by food that con-

tains artiﬁcial colors.

d. The public in general is gravitating toward more plant-based

foods.

e. People tend to base their grocery shopping decisions based on

how appealing the products look.

79. Both universities and the government are concerned about the low

level of student achievement in math and science. In addition, the

government is also concerned about the rising cost of university

tuition. A university suggested that private enterprise could locate

some of their research in university laboratories, and provide

tuition assistance to promising students who aid in the research.

Which of the following, if true, would be most useful to know

in evaluating the university’s suggested plan?

a. the size of the student applicant pool for the research program

b. the science and math aptitude of the student applicant pool for

the research program

c. the value of incentives that universities would offer private

enterprise to conduct research in university laboratories

d. the number of students who would major in math and science as

a result of the plan

e. the type of research that private enterprise would conduct in

university laboratories

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80. Construction Company Y always used power drills that plug into

an electrical socket. Power-Z has manufactured a new type of

battery-powered drill that uses so little energy that it is much

cheaper to use. Thrilled that the price of both kinds of drills is the

same, Construction Company Y has decided to replace all its drills

with the new Power-Z drill, and estimates that the replacement

costs will pay off within three years.

Which of the following, if it occurred, would constitute a

disadvantage for Construction Company Y of the plan described

above?

a. construction Company Y would need to buy 350 new drills

b. an increase in the market demand for construction work

c. other companies that manufacture power tools introduced simi-

lar drills at the same price

d. a signiﬁcant increase in the price of batteries in the next year

e. a shortage of industrial-sized extension cords in hardware stores

81. A national long distance track coach created a new cross-training

program for the team, which includes swimming, weight training,

sprinting staggered with jogging, and yoga. The coach has stated

to the press that the new cross-training program will result in an

Olympic podium sweep by the nation’s team.

Which of the following, if true, could present the most

serious disadvantage for the coach’s cross-training program?

a. The yoga exercises would enhance the runners’ breathing capa-

bilities under physical stress.

b. None of the national team’s competitors have considered this

type of cross-training program.

c. The cross-training program would lead to improvement in

some of the runners on the team, but runners on other teams

would likely have trouble with it.

d. The program requires additional athletic gear, which is very

expensive.

e. The weight training would add muscle to the runners, which

would result in a slight weight gain that would slow down their

times.

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82. Winston University had many cases of meningitis the previous

year. The Director of Residence Life presented a plan to prevent

this from happening again this year. All university students covered

by the student health plan would be required to obtain a

meningitis vaccine before moving into the dormitories.

The answer to which of the following questions would be

most important in determining whether implementing the

proposal would be likely to achieve the desired result?

a. the percentage of Winston University students who are covered

by the student health plan

b. the percentage of Winston University students who live in the

dormitories and are covered by the student health plan

c. the percentage of Winston University students who live in the

dormitories

d. the percentage of Winston University students who live off

campus

e. the percentage of Winston University students who did not

receive a meningitis vaccine the previous year

83. A non-governmental organization raised money to donate

thousands of anti-malarial mosquito nets to a country in which

malaria is a serious public health threat. The organization also

operated a chain of free clinics in that country. The organization

transported the nets in April of that year. Four months later, the

president of the organization announced that the severe decline in

malaria outbreaks would continue throughout the remainder of the

year, and adjusted the clinic budget by slashing its orders for

quinine, the treatment for malaria, in half.

Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the

president of the organization’s decision to order half as much

quinine for the year?

a. Quinine is used to treat a few other uncommon ailments.

b. The chain of clinics treats on average only 40% of the country’s

population.

c. The wet season, during which malaria is prevalent, begins in

October and ends in March.

d. The percentage of the population that received the anti-

malarial mosquito nets is unclear.

e. Other clinics operated by different organizations ordered the

same amount of quinine.

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84. Foreign language skills are vital in today’s international economy.

Studies have shown that the earlier a student begins to learn a

language, the more proﬁcient that student will become with that

language. The school district of M wants to increase student

foreign language skills. The superintendent of the M school

district concluded that requiring all students to begin studies in a

foreign language in fourth grade instead of seventh grade will

result in a greater number of students who are proﬁcient in a

foreign language.

Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on

the success of the superintendent’s plan?

a. The majority of students who study a foreign language in the

school district already speak a foreign language at home.

b. The instruction time for foreign language study will be signiﬁ-

cantly less for the earlier grades than for grades 7 and above.

c. Students will still have a choice between only two languages

d. Foreign language study for fourth graders will take some

instruction time away from social studies.

e. Most elementary school teachers in school district M do not

have training in a foreign language.

85. Trial courts in the state’s civil division have found that jurors pay

less attention in civil trials than they do in criminal trials, which

jurors ﬁnd to be more interesting. In order to maintain the

attention of jurors, the county bar association proposed that all

civil litigators use color and/or interactive visual aids.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason

to expect that the bar association’s plan will succeed in getting

jurors to pay attention during civil trials?

a. Jurors will ﬁnd the color and/or interactive visual aids as inter-

esting as criminal trials.

b. Jurors will ﬁnd the color and/or interactive visual aids interest-

ing enough to hold their attention.

c. Judges will allow the civil litigators to use color and/or interac-

tive visual aids.

d. Civil litigators will actually want to use color and/or interactive

visual aids.

e. Criminal litigators will not start to use color and/or interactive

visual aids.

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86. The Everglades has an ecological problem because of its

population of Burmese pythons, which are not a native species of

the area and were likely introduced by people who dumped them

when they were no longer desirable as pets. In order to address this

problem, a local ecological group created a procedure for safely

capturing the pythons.

Which of the following, if true, would provide the most

support for the conclusion that the ecological group will capture

most or all of the Burmese pythons in the Everglades?

a. The ecological group has a group of dogs trained to sniff out

the location of the Burmese pythons.

b. The local government has increased the ﬁnes for people caught

releasing animals into the Everglades.

c. The Burmese python is one of several snakes in the Everglades

that are not native to the area.

d. Burmese pythons are not venomous.

e. Other environmental groups have also created plans to reduce

the Burmese python population in the Everglades.

87. A state has used the speed limit of 65 miles per hour on its

highways over the last several years. A study has shown that many

drivers pulled over for speeding on these highways were not

driving at an unsafe speed. In order to lower the number of drivers

pulled over for speeding who were not driving at dangerous

speeds, the state has decided to increase the speed limit on its

highways to 70 miles per hour.

Which of the following would be most useful in evaluating

the state’s plan to lower the number of drivers pulled over for

speeding who were not driving at dangerous speeds?

a. the number of drivers who will continue to drive at speeds

greater than 70 miles per hour

b. the percentage of drivers who were pulled over for speeding as

opposed to the percentage of drivers who were pulled over for

other reasons

c. the number of the state’s voters who believe that speeds of 70

miles per hour and under are not unsafe

d. the number of drivers who were pulled over for driving at

speeds between 66 miles per hour and 70 miles per hour

e. the number of drivers on the state’s highways during rush hour

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88. The Bridgeview shopping mall’s customer service department has

reported many complaints from customers about a shortage of

parking in the parking deck. The Bridgeview mall drafted a plan in

which it would construct two additional levels to its parking deck,

and would charge each retailer in the mall a $4,000 fee to help pay

for it, to which the retailers all agreed.

Which of the following, if true, would be most useful to

evaluate the beneﬁt to the retailers for agreeing to pay the fee in

order to enable more customers to shop at the mall?

a. the percentage of mall customers that drive to the mall, as

opposed to taking other forms of transportation

b. whether the additional number of parking spaces will alleviate

the parking shortage

c. the actual number of complaints to customer service about a

shortage of parking spaces

d. the cost of the plan to the Bridgeview mall after the retailers

each paid their fee

e. whether the $4,000 fee that each retailer would pay toward the

additional two levels in the parking deck would actually pay off

in sales revenue

89. A municipality is concerned about the number of car accidents that

occurred during the winter. The mayor suggested that it consider

buying and stafﬁng snowplows in order to alleviate the problem.

The municipality purchased four snowplows, and offered a $15 per

hour wage to applicants to drive the snowplows when needed.

Which of the following would be most useful in determining

whether the municipality’s plan to decrease car accidents during

the winter season will actually succeed?

a. whether job applicants will drive the snowplows for $15 per

hour

b. whether most winter car accidents are a result of snow

c. whether most car accidents in the municipality occur during

winter

d. whether four snowplows will be enough

e. whether most cars in the municipality have snow tires

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90. Kitchen, Kitchens, Kitchens, Inc.! is a kitchen appliance company

that is looking to increase sales for stainless steel appliances. The

company designed its new line of appliances to be more energy

efﬁcient. Advertisements will show the total of the annual savings

in energy costs plus the average government tax rebate to

homeowners for increasing the energy efﬁciency of their homes.

Which of the following, if true, raises the most serious doubt

regarding the company’s expected success from its new advertising

campaign?

a. Competitors plan on highlighting the appearance of the appli-

ances in their advertisements.

b. The savings generated by energy savings and the tax rebate are

less than the cost of the new appliances.

c. Stainless steel appliances always have a higher price than appli-

ances in basic colors.

d. Most customers want to buy their kitchen appliances in match-

ing sets.

e. The savings generated by energy efﬁcient appliances and the tax

rebate are negligible.

91. Many universities have elected to turn their undergraduate

programs into 5-year programs, in order to incorporate mandatory

internships for credit. Although students will have an additional

year of study, they will gain valuable working experience that will

look great on their resumes in this recession and this experience

will be worth the cost of the additional year’s tuition.

Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for

the potential success of attracting undergraduate applicants to 5-

year undergraduate programs?

a. Most students take out only a small quantity of money in stu-

dent loans, and ﬁnd their monthly payments to be affordable.

b. The recession has meant that employers have their pick of stu-

dents, and prefer those with experience.

c. Students have the opportunity to intern full-time during their

summers.

d. Most of the internships are offered in big cities that students

regard to be fun and exciting.

e. About half of undergraduate institutions are planning on offer-

ing these 5-year programs.

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92. The We Care Insurance Company wants to expand by offering

new insurance products. One of the members of the product

development team proposed that the company offer pet insurance.

The team agreed that it was a good idea, until the member who

pitched the idea shared an industry study, which stated that pet

insurance clients tend to avoid policies that raise the annual

premium based on the number of claims submitted. Since pet

insurance cannot legally drop a pet’s coverage once the pet

becomes ill or signiﬁcantly injured, the product development team

is worried that pet insurance will not be proﬁtable after all.

Which of the following strategies would most likely enable

the We Care Insurance Company to offer pet insurance?

a. capping the amount of covered services per pet at the cost of an

annual checkup and shots

b. require pet owners to bring their pets only to veterinary prac-

tices that participate in the We Care Insurance Company’s plan

c. insure only those customers who are wealthy enough to afford

many veterinary services for their pets

d. raise premiums based on the age of the pets

e. insure only pets with no history of medical problems

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Set 2

11. b. Choice b identiﬁes the strategy in Peter’s counterargument.

Peter points out that Louis did not consider that the ﬁnancial

industry’s losses in proﬁts and jobs will result in proﬁt and job

increases for others. Choice a is incorrect because Peter does not

offer additional evidence to support Louis’s argument. Choice c is

incorrect because Peter does not argue that the regulations on

derivatives will have a negative effect on the national economy. He

argues that the increase in proﬁts and jobs in other industries will

compensate for the loss in proﬁts and jobs in the ﬁnance industry.

Choice d is incorrect because Peter does not challenge Louis’s

facts; he supplements them. Choice e is incorrect because Peter

does not challenge the relevance of Louis’s facts.

12. d. Choice d is correct because the cost of repairing the cell towers

does not need to be lower to justify the cost savings of this plan.

Those repairs must cost more than the cost of this plan for the cell

towers. Choices a, b, c, and e are incorrect because they all

mention items that should cost less than the repairs to the cell

towers during the previous year.

13. e. This is a problem that you should attempt to sketch out. Try to

connect the names to make a chain. Katherine has a higher GPA

than Pamela and Adrienne. Shane has a higher GPA than Madelyn,

who has a higher GPA than Adrienne.

P & A < K

A < M < S

Choice e is correct because Adrienne cannot have a higher

GPA than Shane. Choices a and b are incorrect because the

argument does not tell you whether Katherine or Madelyn has a

higher GPA. Choice c is incorrect because the argument does not

tell you whether Pamela or Adrienne has a higher GPA. Choice d

is incorrect because Pamela could have a higher GPA than

Madelyn.

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14. a. The argument shows that Sharon did not inherit the cottage

because Claire McGinnis did not own the cottage when she died.

Choice a is correct because we do not know whether Claire would

have left the cottage to her niece, even though Claire left Sharon

the rest of her property. Choices b and e are incorrect because

whether Humphrey Monroe wanted Sharon to inherit the cottage

is irrelevant to the argument’s conclusion. Choice c is incorrect

because whether Sharon wanted to inherit the cottage is irrelevant.

Choice d is incorrect because the assumption is about who Claire

wanted to inherit the cottage, not who Claire did not want to

inherit it.

15. a. Choice a is correct because it is possible that the employees in

State A each work such a low number of hours per week and that

the employees in State B work such a high number that the total

number of hours paid for is actually higher in State B. Choice b is

incorrect because there is not necessarily a correlation between the

number of employees and the number of restaurants since many

employees could work very few hours. Choice c is incorrect

because the statement would actually contradict the argument’s

conclusion. Choice d is incorrect because there is no indication

that state law has anything to do with why employees in State A

are paid a higher wage. Choice e is incorrect because the argument

does not say anything about what might happen in the future.

16. b. Choice b is correct because in order for buying diamonds to

cost 40% more in Luvania, the tax on purchases by foreigners in

Oretania and the cost of transportation to Oretania must be 40%

less than the cost of buying diamonds in Luvania. Choice a is

incorrect because the ease of the ground breaking under the force

of a pickaxe in Oretania is merely a plausible explanation for the

cost difference, but there are also other possible reasons. Choice c

is incorrect because if the transportation cost is more than 40%,

buying diamonds in Oretania would be more expensive. Choice d

is incorrect because the cost of diamond mining is merely a

possible explanation for the cost difference. Choice e is incorrect

because there is no evidence about retail jobs in jewelry stores in

the passage, and the passage also indicated that people would

actually be less likely to buy diamonds in Luvania.

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17. d. Choice d is correct because ﬁxing the ﬁltration system at the

point of groundwater collection will not change the excess chlorine

content if the problem starts later in the process. Choice a is

incorrect because whether all faulty water ﬁltration systems allow

excess chlorine into drinking water is irrelevant. Choices b and e

are incorrect because they introduce assumptions that would

disprove the argument. Choice c is incorrect because it states a fact

listed in the argument.

18. d. Choice d is correct because whether survey respondents felt

superﬁcial in admitting that their physical appearance was

important to them does not explain why 100% admitted that it

was, yet 15% of respondents did not cite concern over their

physical appearance as a reason for quitting smoking. Choice a is

incorrect because it reﬂects the possible reason that respondents

saw a connection between their physical appearance and cigarette

smoking, and did not care enough about it to quit smoking. Choice

b is incorrect because it indicates the possible reason that

respondents saw a positive correlation between their physical

appearance and cigarette smoking. Choices c and e are incorrect

because they reﬂect the possible reason that respondents did not

see much, if any, connection between their physical appearance

and cigarette smoking.

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19. c. This problem appears tricky, but it is actually pretty simple if

you remember not to make any assumptions about the listed

apartment traits and their respective values. The prompt tells you

that a higher rental price results from a higher ﬂoor, more

sunlight, and/or a greater number of bedrooms. What we do not

know is how various combinations compare to each other, so it is

important not to assume anything, such as a greater number of

bedrooms having a higher value than greater sunlight. What you

want to look for is the one answer choice that clearly violates the

following setup:

Cathy—6th floor

David—4th floor

Krystal—1st floor, $$$$ (highest rent)

Oscar—basement floor, $ (lowest rent)

Choice c is correct because it violates the setup. If Krystal

lives in a 1-bedroom, David’s apartment has the most sunlight, and

Cathy lives in a 3-bedroom, then how can Krystal pay the highest

rent? She cannot because her apartment would not meet any of the

conditions that could plausibly price her rent the highest. In choice

a, Krystal could pay the highest rent because no one is listed as

having an apartment with more bedrooms than hers. Choice b

appears tricky because Krystal has a smaller apartment than Cathy,

but Krystal’s apartment might receive far more sunlight than the

others. Choice d is incorrect because the conditions provided

support the fact that Oscar pays less rent than the other two

tenants listed in the answer choice. Choice e is incorrect because

even though Cathy’s top ﬂoor apartment gets the most sunlight,

the additional two bedrooms in Krystal’s apartment provide a

reason that she pays the highest rent.

20. e. Choice e is correct because a higher membership in weight loss

programs fails to explain why women who spent more money on

exercise clothes and went to the gym more often did not lose more

weight than other women. Choices a, b, c, and d are all reasons

why the women who spent more money on exercise clothes, and

went to the gym more often, did not lose more weight than those

who spent less money on their exercise clothes.

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21. e. Choice e is correct because a larger percentage of patients

diagnosed with bacterial infections would not justify a decrease in

the percentage of patients prescribed antibiotics. Choices a, b, c,

and d are all reasons that would explain a drop in the percentage of

patients prescribed antibiotics.

22. a. Choice a is correct because digital products earn a higher

percentage of proﬁts than the percentage they make up of sales.

Choice b is incorrect because books earn the greater percentage of

proﬁts. Choice c is incorrect because the passage says nothing

about growth. Choice d is incorrect because the passage does not

say anything about the number of products in each group. Choice

e is incorrect because books earn the same percentage of proﬁts as

digital products and products in other mediums together.

23. b. Choice b is correct because the cost of travel for high-level

employees would need to be less than the savings generated by

near-shoring in order to justify the practice. Choice a is incorrect

because the prompt does not say anything about businesses

wanting to convince current employees in cities with a higher cost

of living to relocate. Choice c is incorrect because the prompt does

not indicate that businesses would have to pay for any cost of client

travel. Furthermore, even if the clients traveled out of the cities

with a higher cost of living, that would actually further justify

moving employees out of those locations, including higher-level

employees who deal with clients. Choice d is incorrect because

although it provides some support for near-shoring, there is not

enough information about ﬁnancial incentives to provide a

comparison to the savings generated by near-shoring. Choice e is

incorrect because the clients staying put does not provide an

incentive for near-shoring.

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24. c. This question is asking for the MOST important item to

ascertain, so be careful with answer choices that list items that are

relevant but are not the most important. Choice c is correct

because water has to be available to the drought victims in order to

give them relief. Choice a is incorrect because the exact number of

relief organizations involved is irrelevant. Choices b, d, and e all

list items that are important to know but are not the most

important, because without water, the rest of these items will have

no impact on the drought relief plan.

25. b. This is a formal logic argument, so you should try to sketch it

out and make connections between the people. Courtney is the

most commonly mentioned name, so try to see where everyone

falls in relation to her. Courtney has less money than Marnie,

Alexandra, and Josie. Alexandra has less money than

Danielle. Therefore:

C . . . M/A/J

C . . . A . . . D

Choice b is correct because Danielle cannot have less money

than Courtney, since Alexandra has more money than Courtney,

and Alexandra has less money than Danielle. The other choices are

all possible.

26. c. Choice c is correct because Sophia pointed out that Taylor failed

to consider that registration is a beneﬁt after the purchase of

securities, not before. Choice a is incorrect because Sophia does

not provide evidence that people actually read the securities

paperwork. Choice b is incorrect because Taylor’s argument is not

about the volume of paper that registration generates, and Sophia’s

response merely indicates that buyers of securities will have a

remedy against the parties who misrepresented them. Choice d is

incorrect because Taylor’s argument is about the volume of

information that registration generates, not about the ﬁnancial

literacy of people who buy securities. Choice e is incorrect because

Sophia does not suggest that all securities be registered; she only

states the advantages of registration for those securities that

already must be registered.

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27. b. Look for the choice that is required for the argument to be true.

Choice b is correct because both options together cannot result in

greater fuel efﬁciency than only the use of a lighter metal in the car

frames. Choice a is incorrect because ABC’s options for a lighter

metal would not change the argument that the use of a lighter

metal in the frames would be the most that ABC could do to

increase fuel efﬁciency. Choice c is incorrect because the cars’ fuel

efﬁciency can still be increased even if it already is good. Choice d

is incorrect because what ABC wants to do and the most that ABC

can do are two different things. Choice e is incorrect because cost

is not relevant to ABC’s best effort to increase fuel efﬁciency.

28. e. Choice e is correct because a lower market demand and higher

distribution in the overall industry would be reasons for Crunchy

Organics’ proﬁts to decline. Choice a is incorrect because

decreased wages would enable the company to earn a greater

proﬁt. Choice b is incorrect because lower utility bills and a tax

refund would result in a greater proﬁt. Choice c is incorrect

because a larger olive crop means a greater supply of olives, and

rainfall does not cost the company money. Choice d is incorrect

because a feature about the company as an ethical business could

reasonably result in more consumers buying olive oil speciﬁcally

from this company.

29. c. Choice c is correct because women like to see how a product

will look on them, which is a realistic image. Choice a is incorrect

because the afﬂuence of women in cosmetics advertisements is not

relevant to the passage. Choice b is incorrect because the passage

provides no information that most women actually shop for

daytime cosmetics rather than makeup more appropriate for

evening. Choice d is incorrect because glamorous is not the same

as realistic. Choice e is incorrect because the passage does not

indicate that women are dissatisﬁed with the quality of cosmetics

featured in advertisements.

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30. e. Choice e is correct because the passage does not explicitly say

that the installation of the machines in town that give a 5-cent

refund per item will motivate people to recycle. Furthermore, the

passage does not indicate whether any resulting increase in

recycling would be enough to save those jobs. Choice a is incorrect

because the township’s trash plant is irrelevant and the 5-cent

refund will not pay for any costs because residents will pocket it.

Choice b is incorrect because the passage does not question the

recycling plant’s capacity for additional materials. Choices c and d

are incorrect because the 5-cent refund would go to residents, not

for the cost of the machines.

31. d. Choice d is correct because the public health expert provides

information about population size that negates the reporter’s claim.

Choice a is incorrect because the issue is the number of cases of

the virus in relation to the size of the entire population. Choice b

is incorrect because the public health expert does not single out

particular people who are infected with the Q Virus. Choice c is

incorrect because the argument never alleges an incremental

increase, only an increase. Choice e is incorrect because the expert

does not question information about the people, only about the

group as a whole and its relation to the entire population.

32. a. Choice a is correct because the argument draws a conclusion

based on the percentage of students enrolled in each college.

Choices b and d are incorrect because the argument does not say

anything about the qualities of computer information systems

courses. Choice c is incorrect because the argument does not say

anything about course requirements. Choice e is incorrect because

the job market is not relevant to the argument.

33. c. Choice c is correct because people obtaining news from sources

that do not have high ratings would undermine the argument’s

conclusion. Choice a is incorrect because the conclusion does not

rely on what the press cares about. Choice b is incorrect because

the argument already made this statement. Choice d is incorrect

because what the press should do has no role in the argument.

Choice e is incorrect because whether the press has failed to obtain

high ratings with quality news is not an assumption necessary for

the conclusion that people will not obtain news elsewhere.

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34. e. Choice e is correct because the city council is arguing that crime

did not increase. Do not let the answer’s use of percentages fool you.

The key is that the percentages did not change year to year. Choice a

is incorrect because this conclusion follows from the argument by the

community action group leader. Choice b is incorrect because the

passage says nothing about the laid-off police ofﬁcers committing

petty crime. Choice c is incorrect because the city council president

is not stating causes for an increase in petty crime; she is stating that

no increase in petty crime has occurred. Choice d is incorrect

because the city council’s claim that only the number of reported

petty crimes has increased does not indicate that it is possible to

actually ﬁnd out how many people were actually victims in a year.

35. a. Choice a is correct because a large market and low production

cost are both valid criteria for offsetting a lower price for generic

products. Choice b is incorrect because a large market and low

production cost for name brand products are not needed to offset

higher prices. Higher prices would naturally generate higher

proﬁts, and therefore do not need to be offset at all. Choice c is

incorrect because the passage does not provide any information to

link similar proﬁts with a similar market size. Choice d is incorrect

because the passage says nothing about either of the markets in the

future. Choice e is incorrect because the argument states that

companies that manufacture and sell name brand products are

often under this misconception about the difference in their

proﬁts, which indicates that most companies are not savvy enough

to manufacture and sell both brand name and generic products.

36. b. Choice b is correct because the argument assumes a connection

between anticipating test questions and gearing study toward the

question types. Choice a is incorrect because the argument is

about how people study for standardized tests, not about whether

certain people excel on those tests due to question types. Choice c

is incorrect because the argument does not say anything about tests

covering the entire breadth of a subject. Choice d is incorrect

because the argument concludes that people have to study the

entire subject for tests. Choice e is incorrect because the argument

does not mention non-standardized tests.

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37. d. Choice d is correct because telephone correspondence requires

that clients are at work at the same time as employees at the

companies that serve clients. Although employees could schedule

telephone calls during ﬂex time, this answer provides a

circumstance in which ﬂex time is not beneﬁcial, even if it is not

detrimental here. Choice a is incorrect because it shows that e-

mail correspondence occurs at all hours, which could actually make

ﬂex time beneﬁcial. Choice b is incorrect because it shows that ﬂex

time can make a particular group of employees more productive.

Choices c and e are incorrect because they show negative results of

employees working regular hours, which ﬂex time can ﬁx.

Set 3

38. c. The argument establishes a correlation between regular exercise

and longevity, and states that vegetarianism is not the cause of

greater longevity. Choice c is correct because it strengthens the

argument that there is no causal connection between vegetarianism

and longevity by showing that both meat eaters and vegetarians

have the same longevity when they exercise regularly. Choice a is

incorrect because it states an association between vegetarianism

and the likelihood of exercising regularly, which would weaken the

argument. Choice b is incorrect because it does not negate the

causal connection between vegetarianism and longevity. Choice d

is incorrect because it promotes an association between vegetarian-

ism and other healthy habits that fails to weaken a causal

connection between vegetarianism and exercising regularly.

Choice e is incorrect because it merely states a correlation between

meat eating and unhealthy habits.

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39. a. Choice a is correct because if most people in Springﬁeld are

unwilling to switch from their cars to public transit, the upgrade

will not signiﬁcantly reduce the number of drivers on the streets.

Choice b is incorrect because the speed of the metro trains has no

impact on the argument. Choice c is incorrect because the current

limited reach of the metro supports the argument that increasing

its area of coverage would entice drivers to use public transit

instead. Choice d is incorrect because although an increase in air

pollution may counteract additional reasons that the

environmental group may have to support the proposed upgrade

for the metro, air pollution does not have a relationship in this

argument with getting drivers to switch to public transit. Choice e

hints that people do not desire to ride public transit, but does not

weaken any argument that people are unwilling to switch.

40. e. The question is asking for the choice that bests supports the

president of fundraising’s theory that donors are giving less

because they are less aware of the work that the organization does.

Choice e is correct because smaller print, if used in the mailings,

could cause the donors to be unable to read about the

organization’s work, and therefore feel less inclined to donate.

Choice a is incorrect because the fundraising president stated that

the economic downturn did not have a relationship to donation

activity. Choice b is tricky, but it is incorrect because although the

prepaid postage on the donation envelopes has to do with the

mailings, it does not inform the donors about the organization’s

work. Choices c and d are incorrect because they provide different

reasons for the decrease in donations.

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41. c. Choice c is correct because it shows that the majority of people

who brush their teeth used this brand of toothbrush. Choice a is

incorrect because it only establishes that no other brands used the

same type of plastic for the bristles, not that a signiﬁcant number

of people used this brand of toothbrush, which would be necessary

to show the brand’s effect on the tooth enamel of the population.

Choice b is incorrect because it does not address the brand of

toothbrush under discussion, and whether people brushed twice a

day is outside of the scope of the dentist’s theory. Choice d is

incorrect because the majority of Dr. Roberts’ patients do not

provide a basis for making a statement about the general

population. Choice e is incorrect because the toothbrush

company’s promotional activities did not necessarily result in a

signiﬁcant portion of the population using those toothbrushes.

42. b. Choice b is correct because the author makes a faulty

assumption that people between the ages of 40 and 50 want a

particular style of vacation, when the argument does not provide

any information to that effect. Choice a is a tricky one, but it is

incorrect because the author does not assume that people between

the ages of 40 and 50 have children, but that they want to travel

with their families as opposed to other people. Choice c is

incorrect because the author does not assume that people between

the ages of 40 and 50 have a family that includes a spouse, but

that they want to travel with their family. Choice d is incorrect

because the argument tells us that people between ages 40 and 50

purchase the most vacations to Mexico. We do not need to know

information about other age groups. Choice e is incorrect because

whether the majority of people in a particular age group can afford

a vacation in Mexico is outside of the scope of the argument.

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43. d. Choice d is correct because it provides a reason that more

smokers chose to quit this year. A higher cost for the following

year would support the conclusion that even more smokers will be

motivated to quit the following year. Choice a is incorrect because

the previous year having the lowest number does not tell us

whether the following year will have a higher number than the

current year. Choice b is incorrect because the answer does not tell

you whether an increase in government regulation has actually

occurred or will occur in the future. Choice c is incorrect because

it merely provides a possible reason for the increase in the number

of smokers who quit this year. It does not provide any information

about whether that grant will be available for the following year.

Choice e is incorrect because it does not provide any information

about the following year.

44. b. Choice b is correct because fewer larger boxes of paper will

generate lower tariffs and might wind up being less expensive than

domestic paper production. Choice a is incorrect because job

creation is not relevant to cost reduction here. Choices c and d are

incorrect because they actually would strengthen the argument.

Choice e is incorrect because the amount of paper produced

overall does not necessarily have relevance here as a foreign paper

producer likely produces and sells paper to several countries.

45. c. Choice c is correct because the human resources report fails to

recognize that the qualitative beneﬁts it lists generally do not

pertain to store employees. Choice a is incorrect because there is

no information in the prompt that indicates that company

employees do not care about the qualitative factors listed. Choice b

is incorrect because whether pension and comp time for salaried

employees relates to employee compensation does not matter; the

point is whether these items actually help retain store employees.

Choice d is incorrect because the argument states that the

company has done something to retain employees. Choice e is

incorrect because additional qualitative factors that may have

retained employees are irrelevant to the ﬂaw in this argument.

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46. c. Choice c is correct because it explains why a greater percentage

of clothing in smaller sizes purchased in 2010 does not show that

the average size of adult women has changed in 10 years. Choices a

and d are incorrect because variations in the amount of clothing

purchased or in the number of adult women who purchased

clothing does not explain the discrepancy between percentages of

various sizes purchased and a lack of change in the average adult

woman’s clothing size. Choice b is incorrect because it supports

the opposite conclusion than the one posited. Vanity sizing would

have to be more prevalent in 2010, not 2000, to explain this

conclusion. This is the type of answer choice designed to trip you

up because you may have assumed that the correct answer would

be vanity sizing before you looked at the answer choices. Choice e

is incorrect because a change in the majority of people who

designed clothes merely hints at the vanity sizing issue mentioned

in choice b, but does not actually indicate any change in the way

the designers designed clothes. Remember that you are looking for

the best answer.

47. e. Choice e is correct because if most law students who have jobs

upon graduation were not hired by law ﬁrms, then the average

annual salary of $70,000 provides no information about their

salaries. Choice a is incorrect because the argument provides no

information about salary in relation to the size of the law ﬁrm.

Choice b is incorrect because geographical region is outside of the

scope of the argument. Choice c is incorrect because the argument

makes a statement about the percentage of law students, not the

total number. Choice d is incorrect because the argument does

not draw a conclusion about law students who did not pass the

bar exam.

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48. d. Choice d is correct because multiple purchases by each person

who attempted to quit smoking would negate the association

between the number of the smoking cessation products purchased

and the number of people who quit smoking. Choice a is incorrect

because the fact that people reported that they had more success

with the gum may imply that they might have failed with the other

products, which would cast some doubt on the argument, but this

statement is not as conclusive as choice d. Choice b is incorrect

because Company XYZ may be one of many companies that

manufacture and sell smoking cessation products. Choice c is a

tricky one, but be careful. Someone who quit smoking and then

relapsed still quit smoking, albeit temporarily, so choice c is

incorrect. Choice e is incorrect because doctor recommendations

are irrelevant in this argument.

49. d. Choice d is correct because the breakdown of student

attendance at public versus private colleges is irrelevant; the actual

total in overall tuition is what matters. Choice a is incorrect

because theoretically a majority of students could have

scholarships, but they could be for such low amounts that they

barely offset the cost of tuition. Choice b is incorrect because even

if scholarships offer a large discount on college tuition, a low

percentage of students who have them could result in scholarships

having a minimal effect on the expense of tuition. Choice c is

incorrect because the conclusion is about college, not college tuition

speciﬁcally. Therefore, room and board is a relevant cost of

college. Choice e is incorrect because the number of students who

attend college affects overall college expenditures.

50. e. Choice e is correct because teenagers could only legally drive

during daylight hours and the most drunk driving accidents

occurred during late hours. Choices a and d are statements that

would support the state legislature’s belief that drivers under age

18 signiﬁcantly contribute to or are less capable of avoiding drunk

driving accidents. Choices b and c are statements about teenagers

and alcohol that would support an inference that teenagers are

responsible for a percentage of drunk driving accidents.

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51. a. Remember to read the question closely, because this one asks

you for the answer that would cast the most serious doubt on

Zippo’s argument, NOT the doctors’ argument. Choice a is correct

because it would cast doubt on the argument that an ingredient in

the cans caused the illness. Choices b, c, and e are incorrect

because they are about what the patients ate, which does not

undermine Zippo’s argument. Choice d is incorrect because

whether the patients drank regular or diet Zippo Cola does not

matter: they all got sick.

52. c. Choice c is correct because if most people who need to wear

glasses or contact lenses are unaware of that fact, then they

obviously will not notify the department of transportation when

they renew their driver’s licenses, and the plan will not reduce

accidents. Choices a and b are incorrect because they are

assumptions of the argument, not factors that the argument failed

to consider. Choice d is incorrect because the prompt does not

mention a vision test. Choice e is incorrect the prompt does not

mention anything about out-of-state drivers in relation to car

accidents.

53. a. Choice a is correct because it provides a reason why increased

athletic activity among students did not result in any weight loss

among the student body. Choice b is incorrect because it provides

a reason why the program should have succeeded. Choice c is

incorrect because there is no information regarding what

percentage of students who participated in the intramural sports

were also on ofﬁcial university athletic teams. Choice d is incorrect

because athletic ability does not reveal anything about student

weight before and after participation in the intramural sports.

Choice e is incorrect because students being somewhat active

before participating in intramural sports merely hints that the

increased physical activity was insufﬁcient to result in weight loss.

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54. d. Choice d is correct because Dr. Roberts’ conclusion is that the

rate of tooth enamel decay will drop if patients stop using this

brand of toothbrush. However, the problem is actually the type of

plastic in the bristle. If other brands used the same plastic in the

bristles, patients would still suffer the same rate of tooth enamel

decay. Choices a and e are incorrect because they merely assume a

connection between Dr. Roberts’ patients and dental patients in

general. Choices b and c are incorrect because these claims by Dr.

Roberts do not address the brand of the toothbrush in the

conclusion.

55. b. Choice b is correct because the television executive assumes that

since senior citizens are the largest demographic of the population

and spend more time at home due to retirement, they watch the

most television. If another age group watched the most television,

then the executive should gear programming toward that age

group. Choice a is incorrect because the mention of cost is not

directly tied to viewer popularity, which is the subject of the

argument. Choice c is incorrect because it merely states that fewer

senior citizens spend time at home than previously, not that they

necessarily watch less television than other groups. Choice d is

incorrect because it simply mentions one reality TV show popular

among seniors; theoretically, that group may not watch any other

reality programs. Choice e is incorrect because it only provides

reasons that hint that senior citizens do not spend that much time

watching television, and those reasons only apply to daytime.

56. e. Choice e is correct because database storage shows a feature of

the program that is efﬁcient for human resources to use. Choices a

and d are incorrect because supervisors can allow personal likes or

dislikes to color their evaluations of employees. Choice b is

incorrect because employees who meet revenue goals may be

deﬁcient in other job responsibilities. Choice c is incorrect because

differences in merit may vary more than at three levels.

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57. a. Choice a is correct because if the people who are saving are

underemployed, their income is probably lower than it was

previously and an increased percentage of income saved could

actually result in less money to spend, which will not increase

economic activity. Choice b is incorrect because loans to start

businesses may generate more economic activity. Choice c is

incorrect because the public paying down its credit card debt

would bring more money to the banks, which would facilitate

increased economic activity. Choice d is incorrect because

spending only on necessary home improvements does not indicate

how much or little economic activity is generated by that activity.

Choice e is incorrect because bank fees are not relevant to the

conclusion.

58. e. Choice e is correct because if the majority of customers

purchase items without help from sales associates, then the

connection between increased worker productivity and sales rates

is broken. Choice a is incorrect because wages becoming a smaller

proportion of total costs does not weaken the argument. The other

costs could have grown faster than the cost of wages. Choice b is

incorrect because hiring is not relevant to the argument. Choice c

is incorrect because sales associates who work on commission

having higher paychecks supports the argument that they are more

productive. Choice d is incorrect because other industries are not

relevant.

59. d. Choice d is correct because the money that state residents pay in

their taxes is not actually a cost of tuition, and families pay tax even

if their children attend private colleges. Choice a is incorrect

because the college president states that the cost of tuition at a

private college equals the cost of tuition at a public college plus the

cost of taxes paid toward public colleges. Choice b is incorrect

because it only explains that everyone pays the taxes. Choice c is

incorrect because scholarships at private colleges could result in

private colleges costing less. Choice e is incorrect because the

state’s budget is not relevant in this argument to the cost that state

families pay toward tuition at a public college.

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60. e. Take note that this question asks for which answer does NOT

weaken the argument, NOT which answer strengthens the

argument. Therefore, cross off each answer that weakens the

argument and choose the one that remains. Choice a is incorrect

because customers will shop at other stores for goods if price clubs

do not sell them. Choice b is incorrect because customers who

cannot transport or store bulk sizes of goods are unlikely to shop at

price clubs. Choice c is incorrect because it states that some

customers will not shop at price clubs despite the low prices.

Choice d is incorrect because it negates the claim that price club

prices, the reason that customers would presumably choose to shop

there over other stores, are not actually lower than those in other

stores. Choice e is correct because it does not address the price

comparison between the two stores.

61. d. Choice d is correct because it provides justiﬁcation for the

medical group’s recommendation of one food item that contains

calcium over another in order to lower one’s chances of

osteoporosis. Choice a is incorrect because the argument does not

say that fat intake has any effect regarding osteoporosis. Choice b

is incorrect because the argument does not concern itself with

other health issues. Choice c is incorrect because the medical

group’s argument is not about the general daily diet, only about

calcium intake. Choice e is incorrect because the effect on the

environment is not relevant to the argument.

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62. c. Choice c is correct because if the installation of new appliances

is less expensive than repairing the current ones, the reason for the

complex to employ a full-time super is weakened. Choice a is

incorrect because the time of day that tenants discover problems

with the appliances is not important; what is important is the cost

for the complex to have the appliances ﬁxed. Choice b is incorrect

because the amount of water the appliances use tells us nothing

about whether the complex should continue to have the appliances

ﬁxed. Although you might infer that more water used means a

higher cost, the answer does not provide any information to infer

that the cost from greater water use would negate the savings from

ﬁxing the appliances. Choice d is incorrect because the answer

does not provide any information indicating that the cost of the

super’s beneﬁts would negate the savings of having the super ﬁx the

appliances. Choice e is incorrect because it does not compare the

expense of utility bills with the expense of paying the super. In

addition, tenants commonly pay utility bills, which would mean

that the utility bill savings suggested here are irrelevant to the

argument.

63. e. Choice e is correct because it provides a reason why law

students would not buy the e-book. If a large percentage of

students had open-book exams and took them on the computer

using software that blocked access to computer ﬁles during the

exam, these students would not have access to the e-book during

the exam; they would therefore have a reason to continue

purchasing hard copies. Choice a is incorrect because the age and

familiarity with e-books before the promotion would not explain

why the promotion did not succeed in making more students

prefer e-books after the promotion. Choice b is incorrect because

the weight of a hard copy textbook, if heavy, does not explain why

the promotion failed. Choice c is incorrect because regardless of

the percentage of courses covered by the promotion, some

decrease in hard copies purchased would be expected. Choice d is

incorrect because a comparison to undergraduate students is not

relevant to why a decline in the purchase of hard copies of law

textbooks did not occur as a result of the promotion.

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64. a. Choice a is correct because the argument states reasons why

people plan not to consume soy and fewer people plan to consume

soy in place of meat and dairy; if soy is abundant in processed

foods that contain meat, people may inadvertently consume an

increased amount of soy. Choice b is incorrect because the

increasing number of people concerned that they might be allergic

to soy would presumably have already had an adverse reaction to

something they ate, believe that soy was the culprit, and plan on

avoiding soy in the future. Choice c is incorrect because suspicion

of a thyroid problem, even if not well founded, is enough to

convince people to avoid soy when they believe that soy will

exacerbate the problem. Choice d is incorrect because it would

actually strengthen the argument. The passage states that soybean

farming causes environmental problems. Choice e is incorrect

because although a price difference is a reason that people would

consume more soy, price difference fails to negate one of the

reasons the passage listed for less future consumption of soy.

Set 4

65. c. Choice c is correct because the advantage of the trains was that

they do not spend much time in trafﬁc. A competitor signiﬁcantly

increasing its use of the same tracks could result in train trafﬁc

problems. Choice a is incorrect because it merely presents an

advantage of the bus option, not a disadvantage of the train option.

The answer also does not indicate whether the construction of two

new highways will necessarily alleviate trafﬁc on the road. Choice

b is incorrect because the passage does not say how long trains take

to board in the ﬁrst place, and the amount of boarding time is

unlikely to cause a problem with a train system that runs at 15-

minute intervals. Choice d is incorrect because the low use of the

trains for trips in small demand is not a factor in Suburban

Commute’s capacity needs for peak trips. Choice e is incorrect

because it merely presents an advantage of the ferry option.

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66. e. Choice e is correct because the ﬁshing industry’s desire to

decrease fraudulent red snapper sales could help the Consumer

Watchdog Agency. Choice a is incorrect because if grocery store

inventory managers are placing other ﬁsh in the red snapper

section of the fresh ﬁsh counter, the ﬁsh is being sold unpackaged

and customers will not see the stamp. Choice b is incorrect

because restaurants serve prepared, and not packaged, food, so

customers would not see the stamp. Choice c is incorrect because

customers failing to discern red snapper from other ﬁsh will not

help solve the fraud problem. Choice d is incorrect because if most

red snapper is sold without packaging, the stamp veriﬁcation

would not appear to be helpful.

67. e. This is an EXCEPT question, so note that you are looking for

the answer choice that does NOT explain why the plan failed.

Choice e is correct because the drivers ﬁnding the 10% bonus to

be an incentive would not explain why they failed to deliver 90%

of their packages on time. Choice a is incorrect because trafﬁc

problems are a plausible reason that delays were beyond the

drivers’ control. Choice b is incorrect because faulty GPS units

could result in drivers arriving at the wrong locations and

therefore delivering packages late. Choice c is incorrect because if

fuel was expensive enough, the cost of driving fast could outweigh

the beneﬁt of the 10% bonus. Choice d is incorrect because if

drivers could earn more money at another company and therefore

the majority left Potter Shipping after six months, the drivers

would not remain for a year to collect the bonus, thereby

eliminating the incentive.

68. e. Choice e is correct because Trikas wants to decrease air

pollution in order to placate public opinion, and a signiﬁcant

increase in water pollution is likely the negative effect that their air

pollution problem has on public opinion. Choice a is incorrect

because cost is irrelevant to the immediate goals of Trikas listed in

the prompt. Choice b is incorrect because the system may still

signiﬁcantly reduce air pollution even if it malfunctions 10% of the

time. Choice c is incorrect because the prompt does not provide a

deadline for Trikas to meet its goals. Choice d is incorrect because

the manpower required to maintain the system is irrelevant to the

immediate goals of Trikas.

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69. c. The question asks you to identify which answer choice is

LEAST important in determining whether the government’s new

coverage of preventative care medical services will increase senior

health. Choice c is correct because since this program is free to

seniors, the cost of the services does not matter. Choice a is

incorrect because if the percentage of seniors who seek

preventative care is very low, then the program would not improve

senior health. Choice b is incorrect because the program would

not improve senior health if the preventative services detected

health conditions but early detection provided no advantage in

treating those conditions. Choice d is incorrect because if a great

percentage of seniors do not have access to preventative care, the

program will not improve senior health. Choice e is incorrect

because if only a low percentage of seniors use the government’s

program, then the program will not signiﬁcantly impact the health

of the senior population.

70. d. The question is asking you to identify the answer choice that

would be helpful in determining whether this plan would provide

an incentive to invest in start-up businesses. Choice d is correct

because if the average start-up business did not turn a proﬁt for the

ﬁrst ﬁve years, this tax break would not be advantageous for the

average investor in a start-up business. Choice a is incorrect

because the amount of capital needed does not tell us anything

about the tax break. Choice b is incorrect because the average tax

bracket of an individual investor has no impact on this proposed

tax break. Choice c is incorrect because the type of business is

irrelevant to the tax break. Choice e is incorrect because the

number of Grow the Economy Now party candidates who would

beneﬁt from this tax break has no connection to whether the tax

break would serve as an incentive to investors in general.

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71. a. The question asks you to identify which answer choice would

NOT be relevant in determining whether the free shipping offer

would result in an increase in revenue. Choice a is correct because

the price of packing materials would not matter because the

prompt tells you the expected loss in proﬁts. Only changes in this

price would matter, and the answer choice does not mention

changes. Choice b is relevant because competitors providing the

same offer would not make shopping at The Lightening Tread

Shoe Company particularly advantageous for customers. Choice c

is relevant because if the average price of an order dropped by over

$4.00, the company could lose money. Choice d is relevant because

higher postal rates could mean a loss in proﬁts greater than $4.00

in the future. Choice e is relevant because customers splitting their

purchases into several smaller orders could result in the company

losing more money without gaining in merchandise purchases.

72. b. The prompt does not explain whether the majority of the 35%

work in buildings with more than four stories. Therefore, the

additional plan should include those buildings. Choice b is correct

because it includes the smaller commercial buildings AND it

addresses the possibility that the private safety company might be

doing an inadequate job in the buildings it currently covers.

Choices a and c are incorrect because they do not address the

possibility that the private safety company’s job performance is

inadequate. Choice d is incorrect because it does not address the

possibility that commercial buildings smaller than four ﬂoors

might be the source of the problem. Choice e is incorrect because

the effectiveness of ﬁnes is unclear, especially as the answer does

not provide a monetary amount for the ﬁne. For example, a $1 ﬁne

is unlikely to provide an incentive.

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73. d. Choice d is correct because it explains that citizens in the

repayment plan wound up not paying off any debt because they

were charging at the same rate. Choice a is incorrect because the

current repayment plan could have enabled citizens to reduce their

credit card debt no matter how many similar programs the

government had offered in the past. Choice b is incorrect because

the inconvenience of paying bills in person does not explain why

people who participated in the program did not reduce their credit

card debt. Choice c is incorrect because the need for this program

does not explain why it did not succeed. Choice e is incorrect

because the program could still be expected to reduce debt even

though people were living in poverty.

74. b. The question is asking you to ﬁnd a valid reason for the airline

industry’s decision to triple its ﬂights. Choice b is correct because

an increase in business attendance at trade shows around the

nation would be a reason to expect an increase in travel. Choice a

is incorrect because even if the percentage of retirees has

increased, they will not necessarily travel more. Choices c and d

are incorrect because they only state that an area of operating costs

has decreased, not that there is a greater demand for air travel.

Choice e is incorrect because there is not necessarily a correlation

between a lower percentage of people who fear ﬂying and a greater

demand for air travel.

75. d. The question asks you to identify the answer choice that would

not explain why the new 3-step process failed. Choice d is correct.

Note that the prompt states that the 3-step process checked for

“scratches and other visible defects.” If the majority of the defects

were visible, then the process would have caused employees to

discover them. Choice a is a plausible explanation because it

explains that the mailer envelopes are scratching the discs when

the warehouse employees slide the discs into them, which would

occur after the employees inspected the discs. Choices b and e

would clearly explain why the process failed. Choice c would

explain the failure because the damage to the discs would have

occurred after the company mailed them out.

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76. c. Choice c is correct because the strategy would increase the

customer pool to include customers who are less likely to ﬁle

claims for earthquake damage. Choice a is incorrect because since

earthquakes are on the rise, customers with buildings that have not

experienced earthquake damage in the past 20 years may be more

likely to experience it in the future. Choice b is incorrect because

customers who cannot obtain earthquake coverage through

another provider probably cannot do so because their likelihood of

experiencing earthquake damage in the future is high. Choice d is

incorrect because people who can afford earthquake coverage will

pay for it; the problem will arise when too many claims are ﬁled in

the future and the company cannot afford to pay all of them.

Choice e is incorrect because insuring other disasters is irrelevant

to the problem of maintaining coverage for earthquakes.

77. e. Choice e is correct because if people are buying higher quality

clothing, they are more likely to want to preserve the dye in them.

Choice a is incorrect because although the same cost is not an

argument against the switch, it does not show that the switch will

have an additional advantage. Choice b is incorrect because

moving manufacturing overseas does not provide an additional

justiﬁcation regarding the switch to plant-based ingredients.

Choice c is incorrect because a decrease in consumer spending for

laundry detergent overall indicates a declining consumer demand

for the product. Choice d is incorrect because stain remover pens

are not in the scope of the prompt’s discussion of the company’s

plan.

78. e. Choice e is correct because whether the plan will increase

revenue depends on whether the ads and the ice cream’s enhanced

colors entice people to buy the product. Choice a is incorrect

because natural ingredients are irrelevant to the marketing

department’s plan. Choices b and d are incorrect because the

marketing department’s plan does not have anything to do with the

product’s soy base. Choice c is incorrect because the prompt does

not reveal whether the food coloring uses artiﬁcial ingredients.

Assuming that it does, and even if people do not mind artiﬁcial

ingredients, that fact will not motivate them to buy the product.

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79. c. Choice c is correct because the university’s suggested plan would

require private enterprise to have a motive to conduct research in

university laboratories and to offer tuition assistance to students.

Choice a is incorrect because the size of the applicant pool is not

the most relevant consideration, as private enterprise would have

to ﬁrst participate in the program. Choice b is incorrect because

the suggested plan does not indicate that students have to possess

great achievement levels in math and science in order to

participate. Choice d is incorrect because the universities and the

government are concerned about achievement in math and science,

not necessarily in the number of majors. Choice e is incorrect

because the type of research is not particularly relevant to whether

this suggested plan would succeed.

80. d. Choice d is correct because an increase in the price of batteries

could negate the savings generated by using the new drills. Choice

a is incorrect because the number of drills that Construction

Company Y would need to buy does not matter. Choice b is

incorrect because an increase in the demand for construction work

would bring Construction Company Y more business. Choice c is

incorrect because other companies releasing a similar product at

the same price would not negate the construction company’s

savings. Choice e is incorrect because a shortage of industrial-sized

electrical cords would not matter since the new drills are battery

operated.

81. e. Choice e is correct because the cross-training program would be

disadvantageous if it resulted in slower times. Choice a is incorrect

because it is an advantage of the program. Choice b is incorrect

because what the team’s competitors have not considered does not

mean the program is not advantageous for this team. Choice c is

incorrect because all that matters is the advantages of the runners

for this team. Choice d is incorrect because the price of the athletic

gear does not take away from the goal of the program.

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82. b. Choice b is correct because the prompt stated that the plan only

addresses students who are covered by the student health plan.

Furthermore, the prompt stated that students would be required to

have the vaccine before moving into the dormitories, which would

mean that students living off campus would not be affected by the

plan. Therefore, choice a is incorrect. Choice c is incorrect

because it leaves out the variable of students covered by the

student health plan. Choice d is incorrect because it does not

address the issue that the vaccination plan only applies to students

on the student health plan. Choice e is incorrect because it fails to

address the issues of students on the student health plan and

students who live in the dormitories.

83. c. Choice c is correct because if the wet season has not yet begun,

the president of the organization does not yet have conﬁrmation

that the mosquito nets have actually reduced cases of malaria.

Choice a is incorrect because a small need for quinine for other

purposes does not negate cutting orders in half when the large

public health threat that requires quinine is perceived to have

abated. Choice b is incorrect because the perceived success of the

anti-malarial mosquito nets would presumably have an effect on

the 40% of the population that seeks treatment at the

organization’s clinics. Choice d is incorrect because it merely

suggests that the mosquito nets’ success might not be widespread,

but does not give any reason to afﬁrmatively see a failure. Choice e

is incorrect because other clinics simply may not have known

about this organization’s donation of anti-malarial mosquito nets.

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84. b. Choice b is correct because less time given to foreign language

study for younger students will offset the beneﬁts that are

supposed to be gained by teaching students a foreign language at a

younger age. Choice a is incorrect because students who already

speak a foreign language at home do not necessarily study the same

foreign language at school. Choice c is incorrect because a choice

limited between two languages is not relevant to proﬁciency in a

foreign language. Choice d is incorrect because taking instruction

time away from social studies will not negatively affect proﬁciency

in a foreign language. Choice e is incorrect because the

superintendent’s plan does not necessarily indicate that the

elementary school teachers will not receive training or that they

must be the ones to teach a foreign language.

85. b. Choice b is correct because the plan requires that jurors will

actually ﬁnd the visual aids interesting in order for the plan to

succeed. Choice a is incorrect because the plan does not require

that jurors ﬁnd civil trials as interesting as criminal trials. Choice c

is incorrect because judges allowing the visual aids is a requirement

for the plan to work, not something that would actually show that

jurors ﬁnd the aids interesting. Choice d is incorrect because the

litigators wanting to use the aids will not make the jurors ﬁnd them

interesting. Choice e is incorrect because what criminal litigators

do is irrelevant to the plan.

86. a. Choice a is correct because it explains how the members of the

ecological group will ﬁnd the Burmese pythons. Choice b is

incorrect because increased ﬁnes for releasing animals does not

explain whether the ecological group’s capturing procedure will

succeed. Choice c is incorrect because other non-native snakes are

not part of the group’s objective. Choice d is incorrect because the

passage already states that the procedure for capture is safe, so

whether the Burmese python is venomous is not an issue. Choice e

is incorrect because the plan is only about this ecological group,

not others.

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87. d. Note that the state’s speed limit plan assumes that a speed of 70

miles per hour is safe. Choice d is correct because the number of

drivers who were pulled over under the old speed limit would have

to decrease under the new speed limit in order for the plan to

work. Choice a is incorrect because the number of drivers who will

continue to drive over 70 miles per hour has no bearing on the

state’s change in the speed limit; what matters is the number of

drivers who were driving 70 miles per hour or less. Furthermore,

the state’s plan is about drivers pulled over for driving at that

speed, not drivers who drove that fast in general. Choice b is

incorrect because the state’s plan has nothing to do with other

reasons drivers were pulled over for besides speeding. Choice c is

incorrect because what the voters think about the speed limit is not

relevant. Choice e is incorrect because the passage does not

provide enough information to make any associations between the

density of trafﬁc during rush hour and the speed limit.

88. e. Choice e is correct because each retailer would want to earn the

$4,000 back in sales revenue for the fee to be worth paying. Choice

a is incorrect because the percentage of mall customers who drive

does not necessarily indicate a correlation between increased

revenue and increased parking. Choice b is incorrect because the

purpose of the parking plan for the retailers is to increase revenue,

which could occur even if a parking shortage continued after the

two new levels in the garage were built. Choice c is incorrect

because the number of complaints about the parking shortage only

indicates the problem, not how severe the problem may be. Many

customers who were unable to ﬁnd parking may not have bothered

to complain to the mall’s customer service department. Choice d is

incorrect because the cost to the mall does not affect the retailers’

decision to pay $4,000 apiece.

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89. b. Choice b is correct because the municipality’s plan assumes that

a large cause of car accidents during the winter is snow. Choice a is

incorrect because whether applicants will drive the snowplows for

the offered wage does not address the plan’s assumption that snow

is the primary cause of the car accidents. Choice c is incorrect

because the plan only addresses car accidents that occur during the

winter season. Choice d is incorrect because the number of

snowplows does not address the plan’s assumption that snow is the

major cause of these accidents. Choice e is incorrect because snow

tires are out of the plan’s scope.

90. e. Choice e is correct because the company’s advertising plan is

premised on the assumption that the savings generated will be

sufﬁcient to attract customers to this line of appliances. Choice a is

incorrect because the advertising campaigns of competitors are not

relevant. Choice b is incorrect because it assumes that customers

will only buy these appliances if the savings will actually cancel out

the cost of the appliances. Choice c is incorrect because the price

of appliances in basic colors does not matter regarding this

advertising campaign. Choice d is incorrect because customers

would presumably still see savings in buying a matching set of

these appliances.

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91. b. Choice b is correct because the passage states that the beneﬁt to

students of the 5-year programs is job experience that employers

ﬁnd valuable. In a recession, this reason is even more compelling.

Choice a is incorrect because it says that most students ﬁnd their

current loans to be affordable, but provides no indication that the

expense of a ﬁfth year of tuition would still be affordable. Choice c

is incorrect because other time opportunities for internship

experience are a reason that students would less likely ﬁnd 5-year

programs attractive. Choice d is incorrect because it merely

provides an additional reason that students would be attracted to

5-year programs. It does not address job experience. Choice e is

incorrect because the fact that half of undergraduate institutions

plan on offering these programs does not indicate that students

would necessarily enroll in all the available slots in these programs,

which if true, could support an inference that students not in these

programs would be at a competitive disadvantage. Even with this

inference, this statement does not address the value of job

experience and its relationship to the cost of the ﬁfth year of

tuition.

92. d. Choice d is correct because age provides a mechanism for

raising premiums, and since older pets are likely to need more

medical care, the premiums are more likely to cover the cost of

submitted claims. Choice a is incorrect because capping the price

of pet insurance at the cost of an annual checkup and shots simply

does not make sense for either customers or the insurance

company. If the insurance cost equals or is greater than the costs of

the checkup and shots, customers have no reason to buy it because

they might as well pay for those costs out of pocket. If the

insurance cost is less than the cost of the checkup and shots, the

company would lose money on the policies. Choice b is incorrect

because the plan does not indicate that participating veterinary

practices would somehow make offering the policies affordable.

Choice c is incorrect because people who are wealthy enough to

afford many veterinary services would still only buy insurance if

the price provided an advantage, and they would still submit

claims. Choice e is incorrect because the problem is that the

insurance company has to insure the pets after their medical

problems are revealed.

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Sentence Correction

The GMAT sentence correction questions are designed to test your

knowledge of correct written English, including both grammatical and sty-

listic components. All questions are given in multiple-choice format with

ﬁ

possible

answers.

Each

question

presents

sentence,

which

all

part

has

been

underlined.

The

test

taker

then

presented

with

ﬁve

different

ver

sions

the

underlined

part

choices a through

Choice

a will

always

the

same

version

the

underlined

portion

that

given

the

original

sen-

tence.

Choices

and e

will

variants

the

underlined

portion.

These

alternate

choices

test

variety

aspects,

ranging

from

grammar

and

sentence

structure

word

choice

and

redundancy.

The

correct

choice

must

do all the following:

■

utilize correct English grammar

■

have correct sentence structure

■

not contain any diction (word choice) mistakes

■

not change the original meaning of the sentence

The

questions

will

present

problems

based

two

different

categories:

cor-

rect expr

ession and

effective expr

ession.

Correct

expression problems

deal

with

grammar

mistakes,

misplaced

improperly

formed

modiﬁers,

unidiomatic

inconsistent

expressions,

and

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faults in parallel construction. Effective expression problems deal with proper

diction and syntax, redundancy, brevity, and needlessly complicated

expressions. In this GMAT sentence correction practice, we have divided

the practice questions into the two categories of correct expression and

effective expression so test takers may easily pinpoint the types of mistakes

to later recognize them on test day. Test takers will encounter, however,

some slight blending of both categories in some of the questions. The real

GMAT sentence correction questions will combine both categories of

errors, so be sure to carefully review both sections. They complement each

other and your understanding of one section will lead to a greater under

standing of the other

Remember

that

one

question

may

contain

multiple

errors,

impor-

tant

read

all

the

choices

before

selecting

your

answer.

Use

the

process

elimination

whenever

possible.

you

get

stuck

one

question,

look

for

subtle

differences

between

the

possible

choices.

Insert

the

selected

part

into

the

sentence

and

read

quietly

yourself.

Sometimes

error

will

sound

more obvious to the ear then it will appear on paper

Review

the

material

provided

before

you

begin

tackle

the

questions.

has

been

carefully

crafted

help

you

succeed

this

practice

and

the

real

test.

Good luck!

Correct Expression

The following material will help you prepare for the part of the GMAT sen-

tence correction section that focuses on noun-verb agreement, pronouns,

verb tense sequence, correctly formed and placed modiﬁers, idiomatic

expressions, and faults in parallel construction.

Parts of Speech

In order to correctly structure a sentence, it is important to understand its

basic

components.

Read

the

following

parts

speech

and

make

sure

you

understand their roles and limitations.

Noun: person,

place,

thing;

the

name

anything

→ dog,

Disneyland,

Mary, Mar

y’s dog, etc.

Verb: action

→ run, eat, sleep, etc.

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Adjective: word used to describe a noun → pretty, tall, incredible, surprising,

good, etc.

Adverb: word used to describe verb, adjective, other adverb, phrases; it

describes how something is done → quickly, carefully, patiently, well, very, etc.

Preposition: word that shows relationship between noun/pronoun and

other words in a sentence → on, at, through, between, with, etc.

Parts of a Sentence

Subject: It tells the reader what is being talked about. The main word of a

subject is always a noun or pronoun.

Predicate: It tells the reader what

is being said about the subject.

Object: It

tells

the

reader

who

what

the

recipient

the

action

(verb)

is.

The teacher praised the student.

Subject:

teacher

Predicate:

praised the student

Object:

student

Subject/Verb

Agreement

complete

sentence

must

have

subject

and

verb.

missing

one

these

components, it is considered a fragment and is incorrect. In addition

to ensuring that a sentence has both subject and verb, you must also check

that the subject and verb agree with each other .

singular

subject

requires

singular

verb

form,

and

plural

sub-

ject requires a plural verb form.

X The

development

new

hybrid

cars

have been

very

important

step

toward

less-

ening the countr

y’s dependence on oil.

The

sentence

incorrect

because

have is

used

the

plural

form

modify

new

hybrid

cars.

That

not

the

subject,

though.

The

complete

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subject is the development of new hybrid cars. Therefore, the subject is sin-

gular. The correct sentence reads:

→ The development of new hybrid cars has been a very important step toward less-

ening the countr y’s dependence on oil.

You will notice that the sentence correction questions try to hide the sub-

ject. Remember to capture the entire subject! It may be a phrase rather than

word, and there may be modiﬁers after the subject that try to confuse you!

*Beware of phrases that attempt to hide the subject.

X The planes on the tarmac at Los Angeles International Airport comes and leaves

at all hours of the night.

The previous sentence is incorrect because the verbs comes and leaves mod-

ify a singular subject. The real subject, however, is planes. Try to ignore the

prepositional phrases that can follow the subject (on the tarmac, at Los Ange-

les International Airport) when determining the actual subject. The correct

sentence reads:

→ The planes on the tarmac at Los Angeles International Airport come and

leave

at all hours of the night.

*Beware

the

difference

between

compound

subjects

and

additive

phrases.

X Dr

. Jones and his staff goes out for a Christmas dinner ever y December .

X Dr. Jones, accompanied by his staff, go out for a Christmas dinner ever y

December.

Both examples are incorrect. The ﬁrst sentence features a compound sub-

ject (Dr. Jones and his staff). The compound subject is plural and therefore

requires

plural

verb

formation.

The

second

sentence,

however,

adds

his

staff with

the

phrase

accompanied

by.

This

different

structure

that

uses

additive

phrase

does

NOT

change

the

verb

formation.

The

correct

sen

tences are:

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→ Dr. Jones and his staff go out for a Christmas dinner ever y December .

→ Dr. Jones, accompanied by his staff, goes out for a Christmas dinner every

December.

Common Additive Phrases

accompanied by

along with

as well as

in addition to

together with

Collective Nouns

Collective

nouns

are

nouns

that

can

represent

group

people

things,

but

they

function

singular

nouns.

Beware

collective

nouns

the

sen-

tence

correction

portion

the

GMAT.

They

are

used

trick

you

and

make

you

believe

the

noun

plural.

the

GMAT,

collective

nouns

are

considered to be singular

. Some common ones are:

audience

band (musical)

board (of dir

ectors)

cabinet (of members)

company

committee

corporation

council

crowd

department

family

government

majority

minority

public

society

team

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X Society have changed over the past 20 years with the advent of technology .

This example is incorrect because society is singular. Although it repre-

sents a group of people, it is a collective noun and must be treated as a sin-

gular noun. Therefore, have must change to has.

→ Society has changed over the past 20 years with the advent of technology .

Subject Phrases: Always Singular

A sentence may have a phrase or idea as its subject. This phrase is often pre-

sented with a gerund. It is always singular.

X Having twins have taken a toll on Mrs. Smith’

s health.

The

sentence

incorrect

because

the

real

subject

having

twins,

not

just

twins.

Twins is plural, but having twins is a singular concept. This is an exam-

ple of a subject phrase whose corresponding verb must be singular. The cor-

rect sentence reads:

→ Having twins has taken a toll on Mrs. Smith’

s health.

Pronouns

A pronoun is a word that replaces a noun or noun phrase. Depending on the

role

of the noun or noun phrase in the sentence, a pronoun may be a sub-

ject pronoun (replacing the subject of a sentence) or an object pronoun

(replacing the object

of a sentence).

Subject Pronouns

you

she

they

The teacher praised the student. → He praised the student.

In this case, he has been substituted for the teacher. He is a subject pronoun.

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Object Pronouns

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you

him

her

them

The teacher praised the student. → The teacher praised her .

In this case, her has been substituted for the student. Her is an object

pronoun.

Possessive Pronouns

mine

yours

his

hers

its

ours

theirs

Possessive

pronou

are

used

replace

nouns

and

show

ownership

pos-

session.

Of all the excellent grades, the teacher praised Jenna’s grade the most. → Of all the

excellent grades, the teacher praised hers the most.

this

case,

Jenna’s

grade has

been

replaced

hers.

Hers is

possessive

pro-

noun.

Possessive Adjectives

your

his

her

its

our

their

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The teacher praised the student’ s efforts. → The teacher praised her efforts.

In this case, the student’ s efforts has been replaced by her.

Demonstrative Pronouns

this

that

these (plural of this)

those (plural of that)

The time invested by the CEO to research the project was much less than the time

spent by his subordinates. → The time invested by the CEO to research the project

was much less than that spent by his subor dinates.

In this case, the second mention of the time has been replaced by that.

Pronouns are often used to avoid repeating the subject or noun they refer

to in the sentence. However, because they often refer to a noun

another

part

the

sentence,

choosing

the

wrong

pronoun

common

mistake.

Pronoun

errors

are

very

frequent

the

GMAT

sentence

correction

sec

tion. It is crucial that you check a pronoun every time you see one!

*Make sure a proper antecedent exists for a pronoun.

X The homeowners pondered several upgrades, which would greatly raise the value

of it.

The previous sentence is incorrect because it does not refer to anything in

the sentence. A reader might assume it refers to the home, but home is only

given to modify the type of owners (homeowners), so home cannot be a log

ical antecedent for the pronoun

it. The correct sentence would be:

→ The

homeowners

pondered

several

upgrades,

which

would

greatly

raise

the

value

the home.

*Make sure the pronoun is NOT ambiguous. It must only have ONE

antecedent.

X The dental ﬁeld has developed a new series of white ﬁllings for anterior teeth,

purportedly giving them stronger r esistance against common wear and tear .

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This sentence is incorrect because them can refer to a number of nouns in

the sentence (series of white ﬁllings, anterior teeth). Again, the reader can

assume what them refers to, but more than one answer is possible. Fix this

problem by rewording the sentence.

→ The

dental

ﬁeld

has

developed

new

series

white

ﬁllings

for

teeth,

purportedly giving

teeth stronger r esistance against common wear and tear .

*Make sure the pronoun and its antecedent agree.

X Joanna’s promotion to the board of directors is uncertain because she does not meet

all their rigid standar ds.

This sentence is incorrect because their incorrectly refers to the board of

directors. Although directors is plural, the true noun is the singular board (of

directors). Therefore, the sentence should read:

→ Joanna’s promotion to the board of directors is uncertain because she does not

meet all its rigid standar

ds.

Now

that

you

have

seen

common

pronoun

errors,

let’s

look

common

errors with modiﬁers.

Modifiers

Modiﬁers

modify

describe

part

the

sentence.

noun

modiﬁer

mod-

iﬁes a noun.

→ John sat down in his chair

worn from endless hours of pr

essure.

The

clause

wor

n from endless hours of pressure is a modiﬁer. Upon initial

glance, a reader may think that it modiﬁes John. This is incorrect; in fact,

it modiﬁes his chair .

*A noun and its modiﬁer should be placed next to each other .

Look at the difference in meaning when the modiﬁer changes location.

→ John, worn from endless hours of pr essure, sat down in his chair .

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Be very aware of modiﬁers! They must be as close as possible to the noun

or clause that they modify. Misplaced modiﬁers are a common trick on the

GMAT sentence correction section. They can lead to ambiguous meaning

and syntax. On some occasions, the GMAT will present a dangling modi

ﬁer that

does not

seem

to have a referent.

Dangling Modiﬁers

X Forced to accept his r

esignation, sadness per

meated the ofﬁce.

The

clause

sadness

permeated the

ofﬁce

complete, independent clause. The

ﬁrst part of the sentence, however, is not independent because it lacks a sub-

ject. To what does it refer? It cannot be sadness

Sadness cannot

forced

his

resignation. This is illogical. Therefore, forced to accept his resigna-

tion is

considered

dangling

modiﬁer

because

the

noun

trying

mod-

ify

not

even

the

sentence.

incorrect

and

needs

ﬁxed.

One

possible correction could be:

→ Forced to accept his resignation, the staff exuded a sadness that permeated

the ofﬁce.

Here, the

staff is clearly forced to accept his resignation. This

sentence is

correct.

Restrictive versus Nonrestrictive Clauses

Another important testing point on the GMAT sentence correction por-

tion is the difference between a restrictive (essential) clause and a non-

restrictive (nonessential) clause.

*Restrictive clauses provide essential information about a subject.

→ The dog that has three legs was adopted by a family today.

In this example, the clause that has three legs is essential to identifying which

dog. Therefore, that

is used and there are no commas.

*Nonrestrictive clauses provide extra, or nonessential, information

about a subject.

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→ The East Los Angeles Animal Shelter, which was founded in 1983, takes in

handicapped animals and helps them ﬁnd a home.

In this example, the clause which was founded in 1983 is not essential to iden-

tifying the East Los Angeles Animal Shelter. It is considered extra information

and therefore set off by commas.

*Put commas between nonessential clauses and their nouns. Use

which, NOT

that.

*Do

NOT

put

commas

between

essential

clauses

and

their

nouns.

Use

that, NOT

which.

Active

Voice

versus

Passive

Voice

Sentences

will

either

the

active

passive

voice.

the

active

voice,

the

subject

the

sentence

performs

the

action.

the

passive

voice,

the

subject

the

sentence

receives

the

action

has

action

performed

it.

Active V

oice

→ The teacher

praised the student.

Passive V oice → The student was praised by the teacher .

Beware of intransitive verbs, which are verbs that cannot be formed in the

passive voice. Intransitive verbs have no direct object. Look at the follow-

ing example:

Active V oice → Josh went to work on Monday mor ning.

This sentence cannot be put in the passive voice, so go (or the past tense

went in this example) is an intransitive verb.

The GMAT generally prefers the active voice to the passive voice. Look for

more details about stylistic preferences with the active voice in the Effec-

tive Expression instructional text.

Verb Tenses and Their Uses

Review the following deﬁnitions of the different verb tenses. Make sure you

have a general understanding of their different roles and limitations.

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Simple Present

Uses:

■

Facts or generalizations → The Earth rotates around the sun.

■

Repeated or usual actions → She always forgets to call her mother

on Sundays.

■

Scheduled events in the near future → The family leaves tonight

for their vacation home.

■

Non-continuous verbs to express an action right now → She

has her train ticket in her hand. (see Simple Present versus

Present Progressive for more information on non-continuous

verbs)

Present Progressive

Uses:

■

Express an action that is occurring at this moment → You are

studying verb tenses.

■

Express longer actions that are in progress now → He is

preparing for his speech next month.

*Remember that some verbs (known as non-continuous verbs) are not

expressed in the gerund form.

Simple Present versus Present Progressive

Always use the simple present tense when referring to a general statement

or truth.

Remember that non-continuous verbs are verbs that are almost never

xpressed in the gerund -ing form. Some of the major non-continuous verbs

include the following:

To be (location) → Ralph

is at the store right now. NOT Ralph is being at the

store right now .

To have (possession) → She has $3.00 in her hand. NOT She is having $3.00

in her hand .

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To want → The doctor wants additional tests. NOT The doctor is wanting addi-

tional tests .

Present Perfect

Uses:

■

Express an action that happened at a previous unspeciﬁed time

→ She has met him before.

■

Express an action that has happened various times in the past

→ They have had six quizzes this semester.

Present Perfect Progressive

Uses:

■

Express an action that started in the past and continues until

now, with or without reference → She has been taking antibiotics

since Tuesday. They have been behaving badly.

Simple Past

Uses:

■

Express completed action in the past → She ﬁnished her test at

noon.

■

Past facts or generalizations → Horses were the principal means of

transportation 100 years ago.

■

Express habits in the past → He played the piano as a child.

■

Express an action that began and ended in the past → They

lived in Chile for one year.

■

Express a group of completed actions → He checked into his

room, took a shower, and met his friends for dinner.

Past Perfect

Uses:

■

Express the idea that something occurred before something

else in the past → They had visited Chile several times before they

moved there.

Past Perfect versus Simple Past

It is important to mention that the past perfect tense is not always used to

indicate

earlier

actions.

obvious

that

the

earlier

event

preceded

the

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1 3 4

other, then the past perfect tense can be substituted for the simple past

tense. Also, if the order of events is not being emphasized, the past perfect

tense is not necessary.

→ Anthony drove to work and crashed his car in the parking lot.

→ The family checked the car tires before they began the long drive home.

Notice how the above examples mention two events in an obvious chrono-

logical order, but they don’t use the past perfect tense.

Past Progressive

Uses:

■

Express a longer action in the past that was interrupted → She

was studying for the GMAT exam when the phone rang.

■

Describe an atmosphere or situation → The sun was shining and

the birds were chirping.

Comparing with Adjectives and Adverbs

Comparatives: to be used when comparing two things

Superlatives: to be used when comparing more than two things

Comparing with Adjectives

Adjectives, as you have already learned, describe nouns. When you want to

pare two nouns with an adjective, you will need to change the adjective

into its comparative form followed by than and the second object you are

comparing. When you want to compare more than two things with an

adjective, you will need to change the adjective into its superlative form.

Comparative: adjective + -er (for adjectives of 1 and 2 syllables)

→

The new skyscraper is taller than the church.

→ The stained glass in the church is prettier than the glass on the skyscraper.

Comparative: mor

e + adjective (for longer adjectives)

→

The new skyscraper has more fascinating architectural elements than the church.

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→ The church is more historical than the skyscraper.

Superlative: adjective + -est (for adjectives of 1 and 2 syllables)

→ He was the happiest storeowner on the block.

→ His business was the quickest to succeed.

Superlative: the + most + adjective (for longer adjectives)

→ His restaurant had the most interesting dishes in the neighborhood.

→ His restaurant is the most successful on the block.

Comparing with Adverbs

Adverbs describe adjectives, verbs, and other adverbs. The most common

adverb mistakes occur when describing verbs. Watch for correct adverb use

on the GMAT sentence correction portion, especially when you make a

comparison. When comparing two ideas with an adverb, use the compar

ative form

the

adverb,

followed

than and

the

second

idea

you

are

com-

paring.

When

comparing

than

two

ideas

with

adverb,

use

the

superlative form.

Comparative: more + adverb + than (for all adverbs)

→ A Marine is trained to react more quickly than a civilian in times of panic.

→ John received the promotion because he thinks more creatively than his compe-

tition does.

Superlative: most + adverb (for all adverbs)

→ Of all Robert’

s work references, Mr. Jacobs spoke the most highly of him.

→ She visited her parents most often during the summer.

Exceptions with Comparison W ords

*As with all grammar rules, there are exceptions. The following list includes

some common irregular adjectives and adverbs.

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Adjective/Adverb → Comparative → Superlative

good → better → the best

well → better → the best

bad → worse → the worst

badly → worse → the worst

many → more → the most

much → more → the most

little → less → the least

far → further → the furthest

very

important

the

GMAT

sentence

correction

section

for

com-

parative

and

superlative

forms

correctly

formed.

However,

the

GMAT

exam

will

one

step

further

and

make

sure

that

correct

comparisons

are

made.

Look

for

information

logical

comparisons

the

Effective

Expression instructional text.

Subjunctive

Voice

The subjunctive voice tends to appear in two types of situations:

■

Requests, desires, and suggestions that are structured with

certain verbs and followed by the word that (known as the

command subjunctive)

■

Conditional sentences

Command Subjunctive

The command subjunctive form is used with certain verbs that tell people

to do things or suggest that

they do things. The initial verb must always be

followed by that.

→ The state requires that the school be prepared for an earthquake.

Notice how the sentence begins with requires + that, and the

second verb is

in its base form. The base form of a verb is its most simple form, without

to. This is the command subjunctive.

→ The board proposed that the company go to career fairs to recruit younger per-

sonnel.

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Notice how go is in its base form following the verb proposed + that. There-

fore, the construction of the command subjunctive is:

Command verb + that + subject + command subjunctive form of verb:

→ She suggests that everyone contemplate the implications of the proposal.

→ They demand that the company respond with an answer by 5

P.M.

Common verbs that require the command subjunctive:

demand, dictate, insist, mandate, propose, recommend, request, stipulate, suggest

→ The board recommends that all employees take their time to consider their health

insurance options.

There are, however, some verbs that seem like command verbs, but do not

take the

subjunctive form. Instead, they remain in the inﬁnitive (to + base

form of verb) form.

Common verbs that require the inﬁnitive form:

advise, allow, forbid, persuade, want

→ The lawyer advised his client to get his affairs in order.

→ He forbade her to drive after midnight.

Other verbs can take either the subjunctive or the inﬁnitive form. Keep in

mind that the GMAT will typically prefer the subjunctive form, if a choice

exists at all. Just remember to check the structure of the subjunctive clause

to make sure it is formed correctly! Notice the different structures that fol

low with the same command verb.

Common verbs that can take the subjunctive or inﬁnitive forms:

ask, beg, intend, order, prefer, urge, require

→ The state requires that the school be prepared for an earthquake. OR

→ The state requires the school to be prepared for an earthquake.

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Remember that the that construction after the command verb is necessary

to form the subjunctive voice!

Hypothetical Subjunctive and Conditional Sentences

Conditional sentences are also known as if . .

. then constructions. The fol-

lowing examples are given with the if clause ﬁrst. Notice

in the examples

following the structure that the sentence may also be inverted with the

result clause ﬁrst and the if clause second.

Used to express a general truth or statement

If + subject + present tense verb, subject + present tense verb

If you drop a ball, it falls.

A ball

falls if you drop it.

Used to express the consequence of an action

If + subject

+ present tense verb, subject + future tense verb (or

may/might/could + verb in base form)

If he breaks his promise, she will be disappointed.

She will be disappointed if he breaks his promise.

If she goes to London to study, her parents might be worried.

Her par

ents might be worried if she goes to London to study.

Used to express the consequence of an

unlikely event

If + subject + past tense verb (hypothetical subjunctive voice), subject +

would/may/might + verb in base form

If he broke his promise, she would be disappointed.

She would be disappointed if he broke his promise.

If he were here, he would know what to do.

He would know what to do if he were here.

Used to express the consequence of an action that never happened

(refers to something in the past)

If + subject + had + past participle, subject + would/may/might + have +

past participle

If he had broken his promise, she would have been disappointed.

She would have been disappointed if he had broken his promise.

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Hypothetical Subjunctive

***The hypothetical subjunctive voice is used to express an unlikely or

unreal condition. It is

always the simple past form of every verb, except in

the verb to be. With to be, it is always were, and never was.

→ If I were you, I would take the risk.

→ If she were in your place, I would tell her to quit.

It is common to see this structure with the verb wish:

→ I wish I were ﬁnished with this test!

→ We wish there were more days to study for this test!

In spoken speech, it is common to hear I wis

h I was. Although it has become

accepted in everyday speech, it is grammatically incorrect, especially on the

GMAT sentence correction section.

Parallelism

Parallelism, or parallel structure, improves the effectiveness of a sentence

y wo

rding multiple ideas with a similar structure. A similar structure facil-

itates understanding and can consist of verb and verb, noun and noun,

phrase

and phrase, and

so on. Parallel structure is a very important aspect

of GMAT sentence correction questions and in many cases, it can be the

deciding factor between a right and wrong answer. You will encounter var

ious questions that deal with parallelism. It is important to remember that

othe

r errors may exist within a question that seems to touch on parallelism,

so carefully read each choice.

Parallelism may exist in a number of instances that include:

■

List

→ She bought eggs, ﬂour, sugar, pineapple, and cream for her cake.

X She bought some eggs, ﬂour, sugar, two pineapples to cut into

chunks, and then some cream for her cake.

■

Notice how the ﬁrst example is much easier to understand

because it employs a parallel structure with simple nouns.

■

Series of Phrases

→ The conference speakers touched on the importance of conservation,

the dangers of exploitation, and the future of ecotourism.

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Idiomatic Expressions

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X The conference speakers talked about how conservation is

important, the dangers of exploitation, and what the future holds

for ecotourism.

Notice how the ﬁrst example is much more clear and succinct

because the three factors are all in noun form.

■

Compare and Contrast

→ It is better to have loved and lost than never to have loved at all.

X It is better to have loved and lost than never know love.

Notice that although the parallel example that employs the

present perfect tense in both clauses is longer

, it sounds better.

Brevity does not always indicate the best answer.

Certain expressions force the items in a sentence to be parallel. It is good

to be aware of these idiomatic expressions. When you see them, make sure

the items they refer to are structured with the same part of speech.

Parallel Indicators

And → She decided to r

and swim yester day.

Both . . . and → She went to both the gym and the pool yester day.

Either . . . or → She was going to either r un or swim.

From . . . to → She went from r unning at the gym to swimming at

the pool.

Not . . . but → She pr

efers not cycling,

but running and swimming.

Not only . . . but also → She does not only run, but also swims.

Or → On most days, she r uns or swims.

The aforementioned examples all contain some variant of run and swim. In

ach example, the ideas of running and swimming are kept in a similar struc-

ture to maintain parallelism.

Now, let us look at some additional idiomatic expressions that may

ppe

ar on the GMAT sentence correction test. You should be familiar with

them and be able to spot errors associated with their use.

as many as (to be used with countable nouns)

as much as

(to be used with noncountable nouns)

as (adverb/adjective) as

the number of

(to be used with singular verbs)

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a number of (to be used with plural verbs)

to consider

to regard as

x and y, as well as z

Set 5

Now it is time to answer GMAT sentence correction practice questions that

have been designed to test your correct expression skills. As the questions

progress, you may notice some additional concepts that are not addressed

in this instructional text. These concepts are derived from the effective

expression section. The real GMAT sentence correction questions will

combine concepts from both sections, so pay close attention to unfamiliar

ideas. They will surely be addressed in the effective expression section that

follows. Good luck!

93.

According to a report released by Oxfam, the most successful

nations in the world not only consume the bulk of the world’s

resources, but they are now home to more than half of the world’s

poorest

people.

a. not only consume the bulk of the world’s resources, but they are

now

b. not only consumes the bulk of the world’s resources, but they

are now

c. not

only consumes the bulk of the world’s resources, but they

are now being

d. not only consume the bulk of the world’s resources, but they

have now been

e. not only is consuming the bulk of the world’s resources, but

they are now

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94.

When it ruled that the government couldn’t track an individual by

attaching a GPS device to a vehicle without a warrant, the

Supreme Court curtailed many covert

operations, setting new

standards for future intelligence missions.

a. operations, setting new standards for future intelligence mis-

sions.

b. operations, having set new standards for future intelligence mis-

sions.

c. operations and set new standards for future intelligence mis-

sions.

d. operations and will set new standards for future intelligence

missions.

e. operations, new standards were set for future intelligence mis-

sions.

95.

One of the most important questions facing the American public in

the wake of the global energy crisis is if they can make the

transition to hybrid cars to lessen the dependence on foreign oil.

a. is if they can make the transition

b. are if they can make the transition

c. is whether they can make the transition

d. is whether it can make the transition

e. are if it can make the transition

96.

China’s views of stem cell treatment, which do not place as much

signiﬁcance on the moral value of the embryo, differ largely from

the United States, which views the embryo as a representation of

human life.

a. the United States

b. that of the United States

c. that embraced by the United States

d. those from the United States

e. those of the United States

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97.

British scientists are working on preserving the world’s most

threatened plant species, their regeneration once they’ve been in

frozen storage, and ways to extract their medicinal properties.

a. are working on preserving the world’s most threatened plant

species, their regeneration once they’ve been in frozen storage,

and ways to extract their medicinal properties.

b. are working on preserving the world’s most threatened plant

species, regenerating them after frozen storage, and extracting

their medicinal properties.

c. are working on preserving the world’s most

threatened plant

species, to regenerate them after frozen storage, and extract

their medicinal properties.

d. are working diligent to preserve the world’s most

threatened

plant species, regenerate them after frozen storage, and extract

its medicinal properties.

e. are working to preserve the world’s more threatened plant

species, regenerate them after frozen storage, and extract their

medicinal properties.

98.

During the bus boycott by the African American community in

1955, contemporaries of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s insisted that he

had had the makings of a great leader.

a. of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s insisted that he had had

b. of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s were insisting that he has

c. of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s insisted that he had

d. of Martin Luther King, Jr. insisted that he has

e. of Martin Luther King, Jr. insisted that he had

99.

Floating above Earth, satellites help transmit information between

newspapers and printing sites, information that affects society.

a. printing sites, information that affects

b. printing sites, with information that affects

c. printing sites, the information affects

d. printing sites that affect

e. printing sites that has affected

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100.

If there was any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly than

smoking.

a. there was any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly

than

b. there was any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly as

c. there’s been any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly

d. there is any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly as

e. there is any truth to recent ﬁndings, inactivity is as deadly than

101.

In an uncertain economy, the manufacturing sector, which includes

everything from automobiles, energy equipment, and medical

devices, seems to be making a comeback.

a. from automobiles, energy equipment, and medical devices,

seems to be

b. from automobiles and energy equipment to medical devices,

seems to be

c. from automobiles, energy equipment, and medical devices,

seems that

it is

d. from automobiles and energy equipment to medical devices,

seems that it is

e. from automobiles, energy equipment,

in addition to medical

devices, seems to be

102.

As companies grow increasingly dependent on technology,

employees having mastered computer engineering become more

competitive in the job market.

a. having mastered computer engineering become

b. who mastered computer engineering became

c. having mastered computer engineering will be becoming

d. who master computer engineering are becoming

e. who master computer engineering have been becoming

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103.

Like trees have rings to determine their age, so do growth rings on

the scales of some ﬁsh.

a. Like trees have rings to determine their age, so do growth rings

on the scales of some ﬁsh.

b. Like trees have rings to determine their age, some ﬁsh have

growth rings on their scales.

c. Trees, as some ﬁsh, have growth rings that determine their age.

d. As trees have rings, growth rings also appear on some ﬁsh to

determine their age.

e. Some ﬁsh, like trees, have growth rings that determine their

age.

104.

Fossil discoveries suggest that an extinct river turtle survived the

meteorite, which killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

a. meteorite, which killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

b. meteorite that had killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

c. meteorite that killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

d. meteorite, which had killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

e. meteorite killing off dinosaurs 65 million years ago.

105.

Three of the most encouraging ideas to extend the life of satellites

includes restoring power via a mission extension vehicle, refueling

via a type of traveling service station, and to detach working parts

from old satellites to attach them to new ones.

a. includes restoring power via a mission extension vehicle, refuel-

ing via a type of traveling service station, and to detach working

parts from old satellites to attach them

to new ones.

b. include restoring power via a mission extension vehicle, refuel-

ing via a type of traveling service station, and detaching working

parts from old satellites to attach them to new ones.

c. are to restore power via a mission extension vehicle, refueling

via a type of traveling service station, and by detaching working

parts from old satellites to attach them to new ones.

d. includes restoring power via a mission extension vehicle, refuel-

ing via a type of traveling service station, and detaching working

parts from old satellites to attach them to new ones.

e. include restoring power via a mission extension vehicle, using a

traveling service station that refuels them, and detaching work-

ing parts to attach them to new satellites from old ones.

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106.

Thought to be either symbolic or accurate descriptions,

archaeologists have debated cave paintings for some time.

a. archaeologists have debated cave paintings for some time.

b. archaeologists have long debated the signiﬁcance of cave paint-

ings.

c. much time has been devoted to debating the signiﬁcance of cave

paintings.

d. cave paintings have been a subject of debate by archaeologists

for some time.

e. cave paintings have debated archaeologists for some time.

107.

Some economic experts argue that if government would not have

intervened in the housing market, the economic crisis would have

been avoided.

a. if government would not have intervened in the housing mar-

ket, the economic crisis would have been avoided.

b. the economic crisis would have been avoided if government

would not have intervene in the housing market.

c. if government had not intervened in the housing market, the

economic crisis could have been avoided.

d. the economic crisis could be avoided if government didn’t inter-

vene in the housing market.

e. the economic crisis would have been avoided if government had

not

intervene in the housing market.

108.

Easter Islanders claim that the island’s ancient, famous statues

walked by themselves, which they allege as proof of their magical

powers.

a. which they allege as proof of their magical powers.

b. which they have alleged as proof of their magical powers.

c. which they alleged as an example of evidence of its magical

powers.

d. which allegedly are proof of the statues’ magical powers.

e. which is alleged proof of the statues’ magical powers.

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109.

Citizens often demand that a presidential candidate release their

tax records in order to determine how much has been taken by the

government.

a. release their tax records in order to determine how much has

been taken by the government.

b. release his or her tax records in order to determine how much

has been taken by the government.

c. releases his or her tax records in order to determine how much

have been taken by the government.

d. release their tax records in order to determine how much have

been taken by the government.

e. releases his or her tax records in order to determine how much

has been taken by the government.

110.

Democrats’ views, which favor progressive taxation and a liberal

philosophy, are generally deemed more revolutionary than

Republicans’.

a. are generally deemed more revolutionary than Republicans’.

b. are generally deemed more revolutionary than Republican.

c. are generally deemed the most revolutionary over Republicans’.

d. are generally deemed the most revolutionary in comparison to

Republican’

e. are generally deemed more revolutionary than Republicans.

111.

Figures from 2011 indicate that a number of unemployed

American citizens with a disability were about the same as in 2010.

a. a number of unemployed American citizens with a disability

were about the same as in 2010.

b. a number of unemployed American citizens with a disability was

about the same as in 2010.

c. the number of unemployed American citizens with a disability

was about the same than in 2010.

d. the number of unemployed American citizens with a disability

were about the same than in 2010.

e. the number of unemployed American citizens with a disability

was about the same as in 2010.

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112.

The market forces to which the movements of a stock price are

subjected are sufﬁcient to surprise even the most experienced

stockbrokers.

a. to which the movements of a stock price are subjected are

b. to which the movements of a stock price is subjected is

c. to which the movements of a stock price are subjected is

d. to which the movements of a stock price is subjected are

e. subjecting the movement of a stock price is

113.

A new deﬁnition for autism suggests that a new umbrella category

of “autism spectrum disorder” be established, and in encompassing

previously separate disorders, such as Asperger’s syndrome and

childhood disintegrative disorder, they would achieve more

accurate diagnoses and better treatment.

a. be established, and in encompassing previously separate disor-

ders, such as Asperger’s syndrome and childhood disintegrative

disorder

, they would achieve more accurate diagnoses and bet-

ter treatment.

b. is established, and in encompassing previously separate disor-

ders, such as Asperger’

s syndrome and childhood disintegrative

disorder

, more accurate diagnoses and better treatment would

be achieved.

c. to be established, and in encompassing previously separate dis-

orders, such as Asperger’s syndrome and childhood disintegra-

tive disorder, they would potentially achieve more accurate

diagnoses and better treatment.

d. be established, which would encompass previously separate dis-

orders such as Asperger’

s syndrome and childhood disintegra-

tive disorder, and lead to more accurate diagnoses and better

treatment.

e. is established, and by encompassing previously separate disor-

ders, such as Asperger’s syndrome and childhood disintegrative

disorder

, they would achieve more accurate diagnoses and bet-

ter treatment.

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114.

Surveys indicate that feelings of happiness and satisfaction are

relative; a poor man may wish he was $1 million richer, yet a

millionaire may still feel unsatisﬁed and wishes he had $2 million

more.

a. may wish he was $1 million richer, yet a millionaire may still

feel unsatisﬁed and wishes he had

b. may wish he were $1 million richer, yet a millionaire may still

feel unsatisﬁed and wish he had

c. may wish he was $1 million richer, yet a millionaire will still feel

unsatisﬁed and wish he had

d. wishes he was $1 million richer, yet a millionaire still feels

unsatisﬁed and wishes he had

e. may wish he were $1 million richer, yet a millionaire may still

feel unsatisﬁed and wish he has

115.

A system of underground tunnels at the White House were built

on an impressive scale, with a complex communication network, to

lead to the Deep Underground Command Center in the case a

national emergency.

a. House were built on an impressive scale, with a complex com-

munication network, to lead to the Deep Underground Com-

mand Center in the case a national emergency.

b. House were built on an impressive scale, which has a complex

communication network,

leading to the Deep Underground

Command Center in the event of a national emergency.

c. House, featuring a complex communication network, was built

on an impressive scale to lead to the Deep Underground Com-

mand Center in the event of a national emergency.

d. House was built on an impressive scale with a complex commu-

nication network to lead to the Deep Underground Command

Center should a national emergency occurs.

e. House were built on an impressive scale, with a complex com-

munication network, that lead to the Deep Underground Com-

mand Center in case of a national emergency

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116.

A majority of society argues that neither technology nor genetics is

to blame for rampant childhood obesity in society.

a. argues that neither technology nor genetics is to

b. argue that neither technology nor genetics are to

c. argue that they cannot look at technology or genetics as the

d. argue that not technology or genetics is to

e. argues that not technology nor genetics is to

117.

Rather than waiting to die, Oregon’s right-to-die law permits

mentally stable people, which have less than six months to live,

access to medication to accelerate their demise.

a. Rather than waiting to die, Oregon’s right-to-die law permits

mentally stable people, which have less than six months to live,

access to medication to accelerate their demise.

b. Rather than waiting to die, Oregon’s right-to-die law permits

mentally stable people that have less than six months to live to

access medication to accelerate their demise.

c. Rather than waiting to die, the demise of mentally stable people

who have less than six months to live can be accelerated by Ore-

gon’s right-to-die law who permits them access to medication.

d. Rather than waiting to die, mentally stable people who have less

than six months to live are permitted access to medication by

Oregon’

s right-to-die law to accelerate their demise.

e. Rather then waiting to die, mentally stable people’s demise can

be accelerated by Oregon’s right-to-die law, permitting them

access to medication provided they have less than six months

to live.

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118.

The newly established International Criminal Court brought

charges against the warlord for plundering villages, stealing food,

and the kidnapping of children for taking as soldiers and wives.

a. for plundering villages, stealing food, and the kidnapping of

children for taking as soldiers and wives.

b. for plundering villages, to steal food, and kidnap children to

take as soldiers and wives.

c. for his plundering of villages, stealing food, and kidnapping

children to be soldiers and wives.

d. because he plundered villages, stealing food, and kidnapping

children to take as soldiers and wives.

e. for plundering villages, stealing food, and kidnapping children

to take as soldiers and wives.

119.

Although the Olympic athlete’s mother was at home watching her

son on television, the competition was as exciting to her as the

royal attendees sitting in the ﬁrst row.

a. was as exciting to her as the royal attendees sitting in the ﬁrst

row

b. was as exciting to her than the royal attendees sitting in the ﬁrst

row

c. was as exciting to her as to the royal attendees sitting in the ﬁrst

row

d. was as exciting to her than to the royal attendees sitting in the

ﬁrst row

e. was as exciting to her then to the royal attendees sitting in the

ﬁrst row

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120.

Many full veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending their

patriarchal traditions, especially when confronted with Western

opposition who views them as being heavily

oppressed.

a. full veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending their

patriarchal traditions, especially when confronted with Western

opposition who views them as being heavily

b. full veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending her patri-

archal traditions, especially when confronted with Western

opposition who views her as being heavily

c. fully veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending their

patriarchal traditions, especially when confronted with Western

opposition that views them as being heavy

d. fully veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending their

patriarchal traditions, especially when confronted with W

estern

opposition that views them as being heavily

e. fully veiled Muslim women are outspoken in defending her

patriarchal traditions, especially when confronted with Western

opposition that views her as being heavily

121.

A handful of companies offer DNA-based tests that supposedly

determine how well a person’s natural athletic abilities are, but

critics insist these tests don’t reveal much more than a standard

performance test.

a. well a person’s natural athletic abilities are, but critics insist

these tests don’t reveal much more than a standard performance

test.

b. good a person’

s natural athletic abilities are, but critics insist

that these tests don’t reveal much more than standard per-

formance tests do.

c. well a person’s natural athletic abilities are, but critics insist

these tests don’

t reveal much beyond a standard performance

test.

d. well a person’s natural athletic abilities are, but critics insist that

these tests don’

t reveal much more than standard performance

tests do.

e. good a person’s natural athletic abilities are, but critics insist

that standard performance tests don’t reveal much less than the

other tests.

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122.

Resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials,

there was only silence in the locker room.

a. Resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials,

there was only silence in the locker room.

b. There was only silence in the locker room, resigned to accept

his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials.

c. Silent in the locker room, resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcation

from the Olympic trials.

d. Resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials,

silence permeated the locker room.

e. Resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials,

the athlete remained silent

in the locker room.

123.

Latin America has no single dominant Spanish dialect: The range

of Spanish encompasses many styles, speeds, and slang, with each a

product of their local inﬂuences, from the fast-paced, clear

Colombian variants to the more obvious, melodic Argentinian

alternatives.

a. with each a product of their

b. each products of their

c. each products of

d. with each as a product of its

e. each a product of

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124.

In the eighteenth century, William Shakespeare was regarded as

one of the greatest playwrights of all time, and not until the mid-

nineteenth century was the authorship of the works attributed to

Shakespeare ﬁrst openly questioned by Joseph C. Hart.

a. In the eighteenth century, William Shakespeare was regarded as

one of the greatest playwrights of all time, and not until the

mid-nineteenth century was the authorship of the works attrib

uted to Shakespeare ﬁrst openly questioned by Joseph C. Hart.

b. William Shakespeare was considered as one of the greatest play-

wrights of all time in the eighteenth century, and not until the

middle of the ninteenth century did Joseph C. Hart

ﬁrst openly

question his works.

c. In the eighteenth century

, they considered William Shakespeare

as one of the greatest

playwrights of all time, and not until the

mid-ninteenth century did Joseph C. Hart ﬁrst explicit question

his authorship of Shakespeare’s works.

d. In the eighteenth century,

William Shakespeare was considered

to be one of the greater playwrights of all time, and not until

the mid-ninteenth century did Joseph C. Hart openly question

Shakespeare’s authorship of the works attributed to him.

e. In the eighteenth century, William Shakespeare was regarded

to be one of the greatest playwrights of all time, and not until

the middle of the ninteenth century did Joseph C. Hart ﬁrst

openly question Shakespeare’s authorship of the works attrib

uted to him.

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125.

The Happy Planet Index, which ranks 151 countries, considers

data like life expectancy, overall well-being, and a country’s

ecological footprint on calculating the happiness of a country.

a. which ranks 151 countries, considers data like life expectancy,

overall well-being, and a country’s ecological footprint on calcu-

lating the happiness of a country.

b. which ranks the happiness of 151 countries, considers data like

life expectancy and overall well-being and a country’

s ecological

footprint.

c. which ranks the happiness of 151 countries, considers data such

as life expectancy and overall well-being, as well as the country’s

ecological footprint in its calculations.

d. which ranks 151 countries, considers data such as life

expectancy

, overall well-being, as well as a country’s ecological

footprint when calculating the happiness of a country.

e. which ranks 151 countries, consider data such as life expectancy,

overall well-being, and a country’s ecological footprint to deter-

mine the happiness of a country

126.

Results from numerous studies show that if a diabetic plans his or

her diet and exercised with fellow diabetics, they will regain

control quicker and stick to weight goals for a longer period of

time than do

someone who attempts to do so alone.

a. exercised with fellow diabetics, they will regain control quicker

and stick to weight goals for a longer period of time than do

b. exercises with fellow diabetics, he or she regains control more

quickly and sticks to weight goals for a longer period of time

than

c. exercises with fellow diabetics, they regain control quicker and

stick to weight goals for a longer period of time than does

d. exercised with fellow diabetics, he or she will have regained

control more quickly and stuck to weight goals for a longer

period of time than

e. exercises with fellow diabetics, he or she regains control more

quickly and sticks to weight goals for a longer period of time

than does

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127.

Growing economic woes and competition could be pushing

accountants to ﬁnagle their clients’ records; accountants can, for

example, help their frustrated clients write off certain luxurious

purchases and justify them as business expenses.

a. clients’ records; accountants can, for example, help

b. clients’ records, as an example, they can help

c. clients’ records, like they can help

d. clients records; which might include that they

e. clients’ records, such as to be helping

128.

A series of troubling reports released by some of the top

environmental organizations indicates that as much as 18,000

pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which is resistant to natural

biodegradation, makes up

every square kilometer of the ocean.

a. indicates that as much as 18,000 pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which

is resistant to natural biodegradation, makes up

b. indicates that as much as 18,000 pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which

is resistant to natural biodegradation, have made up

c. indicate that as many as 18,000 pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which

is resistant to natural biodegradation, is making up

d. indicates that as many as 18,000 pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which

are resistant to natural biodegradation, make up

e. indicate that

as many of 18,000 pieces of ﬂoating plastic, which

are resistant to natural biodegradation,

make up

129.

Restaurateurs are well aware that the frequency of employee

turnover and how servers treat their customers is very indicative of

employee happiness on the job.

a. how servers treat their customers is

b. how servers treat their customers are

c. and servers’ treatment of their customers are

d. and servers’ treatment of their customers is

e. customers’ reactions to their servers are

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130.

The famous rivalry of Coke and Pepsi may never have been if

Coca-Cola hadn’t seized the opportunity presented three times

between 1922 and 1933 and bought

the bankrupt Pepsi Cola

Company.

a. of Coke and Pepsi may never have been if Coca-Cola hadn’t

seized the opportunity presented three times between 1922 and

1933 and bought

b. of Coke and Pepsi may never have been if Coca-Cola hadn’t

seized the opportunity presented three times between 1922 and

1933 and hadn’

t bought

c. between Coke and Pepsi may never have been if Coca-Cola

hadn’t seized the opportunity presented three times between

1922 and 1933 and bought

d. between Coke and Pepsi would never be if Coca-Cola had

seized the opportunity presented three times between 1922 and

1933 and bought

e. between Coke and Pepsi may never have been if Coca-Cola had

seized the opportunity presented three times between 1922 and

1933 and bought

131.

In June 2012, the Rhode Island General Assembly had voted to

repeal a law enacted in 1989 that made lying online a

misdemeanor, citing the illogic of trying to enforce something that

is so often

innocently violated.

a. had voted to repeal a law enacted in 1989 that made lying

online a misdemeanor, citing the illogic of trying to enforce

something that is so often

b. voted to repeal a law enacted in 1989 that

made lying online a

misdemeanor, citing the illogic of trying to enforce something

that is so often

c. had voted to repeal a law enacted in 1989 that made lying

online a misdemeanor, citing the illogic of the trying to enforce

something that is so often

d. voted in favor of to repeal a law enacted in 1989 that has made

lying online a misdemeanor, citing the illogic of attempting to

enforce something that is so often

e. voted for repealing a law enacted in 1989 that had made lying

online a misdemeanor, having cited the illogic of trying to

enforce something that is so often

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132.

However much United States citizens may criticize the perils of

capitalism and that the democracy is corrupted, it is rare to ﬁnd

organized national movements for a structure other than

democracy.

a. However much United States citizens may criticize the perils of

capitalism and that the democracy is corrupted,

b. Although United States citizens may agree capitalism is danger-

ous and democracy is corrupted,

c. Despite criticism by United States citizens to the extent of the

perils of capitalism and corruption of democracy,

d. However much United States citizens may criticize the perils of

capitalism and the corruption of democracy

e. However many United States citizens may criticize the perils of

capitalism and corruption of democracy,

133.

The private lending sector has $8 billion in student loans that are

in default or at such serious risk to default that it does not expect

payments when it is due and has consequently tightened credit

standards for new student

loans.

a. that it does not expect payments when it is

b. that payments will not be expected to be paid when

c. that it

does not expect payments to be made when they are

d. that payments are not expected to be paid when they are going

to be

e. that they do not expect payments when it is

Effective Expression

The following material will help you prepare for the part of the GMAT sen-

tence correction section that focuses on clarity and conciseness in sentences,

effective syntax, redundancy, and proper diction.

Sentence Formation

In order to form an effective sentence, it is crucial that you understand its

components.

Syntax

deﬁned

sentence

structure. Syntax can make the

difference between an effective and ineffective sentence. The following

terms break down the different parts that make up a sentence and how their

misuse can lead to confusion and ambiguity.

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Independent Clause

A clause that expresses a complete sentence → Monica walked on the grass .

Coordinating Conjunction

A word that joins two independent and equal clauses: and, but, so, or, for, nor,

yet

→ Dorothy had a beautiful rose gar den, and her yar d was a profusion of color

every summer .

*The most common coordinating conjunction is

and.

And can also be

used in a list, such as in the following example:

→ Dorothy has roses, lilies,

and daisies in her gar

den.

*When you see and in a sentence correction question, make sure it is used

in a list (as in the aforementioned example), or as a coordinating

conjunction that combines two independent clauses. Look at the

following example:

X The language test administer

ed by the school

and touched on important differ -

ences between British English and American English.

This sentence is incorrect because the language test administer ed by the

school

is not an independent clause. Therefore,

and cannot combine

it with the rest of the sentence. Look at

the corrected version, which

changes the ﬁrst

part of the sentence to an independent

clause by

including the verb was:

→ The language test was administer

ed by the school

and touched on important

differences between British English and American English.

Conjunctive Adverb/T ransition W ord

A word that introduces a relationship between two independent clauses and

connects them. These words are called conjunctive adverbs, transition

words, and connecting words. If the word is used in the middle of a sen

tence,

semicolon

generally

used

before

the

word.

Every

sentence

must

have

least

one

main

clause

(with

subject

and

verb),

but

many

sentences

will

have

two

more.

order

logically

combine

clauses

sentence,

conjunctive

adverbs

(or

transition

words)

are

necessary

show

the

rela

tionship

between

clauses.

Using

too

many

not

enough

conjunctive

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adverbs can lead to errors. Some common conjunctive adverbs and their

uses are given here:

Contrast and Comparison

however, instead, nevertheless, otherwise, yet

→ On T uesdays, I play racquetball; otherwise, I would go with you.

Cause–Effect/Consequence

as a r

esult,

consequently

, hence, then, therefore, thus

→ On T uesdays, I play racquetball; therefore, I am unable to go to the meeting.

Addition

also, as well as , furthermore, in addition (to) , moreover

→ On T uesdays, I play racquetball; furthermore, I lift weights for one hour in

the mor ning.

*On the GMA

T sentence correction section, it

is important

that you use

the correct conjunctive adverb to connect

ideas. Choose a word that

logically ﬁts into the sentence and sensibly connects the ideas.

Look

at the following

example:

X The childr

en ar

e not inter

ested in swimming;

therefore, swimming is their

favorite Olympic sport to watch.

The preceding sentence is incorrect because therefore does not logically

combine the two contrasting ideas. Look at the corrected version with a dif-

ferent, more logical conjunctive adverb.

→ The childr en ar e not inter ested in swimming; however, swimming is their

favorite Olympic sport to watch.

Dependent (Subordinate) Clause

A clause that does not express a complete sentence → though it was wet

→ Monica walked on the grass,

though it was wet

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Subordinating Conjunction

A word that makes a clause dependent: after, although, as, because, before, if,

once, since, than, that, though, unless, until, when, whenever, where, wherever,

while

→ The man wasn’ t angr y, though he had a right to be.

Though he had a right to be is a dependent clause because of though, a subor-

dinating conjunction.

Restrictive (Essential) Clause

A dependent clause that is necessary to the basic meaning of the completed

sentence. → who ar e pr egnant

→ Women who ar e pr egnant can crave salty or sweet foods. (Notice the

absence of commas.)

Nonrestrictive (Nonessential) Clause

A dependent clause that is not necessary to the basic meaning of the com-

pleted sentence. → who growls whenever the phone rings

→ Elmo, who growls whenever the phone rings , attacked the vacuum cleaner

(Notice the commas.)

Appositive

phrase

that

makes

preceding

noun

pronoun

clearer

deﬁnite

by explaining

or identifying it → rice pudding and fr uit salad

Candice’s grandfather brought her favorite desserts, rice pudding and fr uit

salad.

Fragment

phrase

punctuated

sentence

even

though

does

not

express

com-

plete thought.

→ Timothy saw the car

And ran

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Correct Syntax

To obtain correct syntax, the ﬁrst step in an effective sentence, a sentence

must:

■

Always have at least one independent clause in the sentence.

→ Chaucer was a narrator .

■

Join two independent

clauses with a comma and a

conjunction.

→ Chaucer was a narrator , and he was a pilgrim in his Canterbury

Tales.

■

Not run two or more independent clauses together without

punctuation; that error is called a run-on.

■

Not separate two independent clauses with just a comma; that

error is called a comma splice .

X Chaucer was a narrator

, he was a pilgrim in his Canterbury T ales.

The preceding example is incorrect because only a comma is

separating the two independent clauses. A correct sentence

would be:

→ Chaucer was a narrator

and he was a pilgrim in his Canterbury

Tales.

■

Do not

use a

conjunctive adverb

(words such as

accordingly,

besides,

consequently,

furthermore,

hence,

however,

instead,

moreover,

nevertheless,

otherwise,

then,

therefore,

thus) like a

conjunction.

X Chaucer was a narrator

, mor

eover he was a pilgrim in his

Canterbury T ales.

The preceding example is incorrect because only a comma is

separating the conjunctive adverb. The corrected sentence

would be:

→ Chaucer was a narrator

; mor

eover, he was a pilgrim in his

Canterbury T

ales.

Semicolons

Semicolons are generally used in the following two circumstances:

■

Between two independent clauses

→ Edward joined the basketball team ; remarkably, the 5 ¢4¢¢ young

man excelled at the sport.

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In this example, Edward joined the basketball team and the 5 ¢4¢¢

young man excelled at the sport are both independent clauses that

have been connected by the conjunctive adverb remarkably and

a semicolon.

■

Between elements in a series that

uses commas already

→ The possible dates for the potluck dinner ar

e Thursday

, June 5

;

Saturday, June 7

; or Monday

, June 9.

Effective

Sentence

Style

The

GMAT

sentence

correction

test

follows

some

general

standards

form

effective sentences. Review the following points and keep them in

mind as you tackle the questions.

Prefer the That Clause

The GMAT sentence correction test will often present sentences with a t

hat

clause.

Review

the

following

points

make

sure

you

understand

the

role

of the

that clause in a sentence.

Reporting V

erbs

Reporting

verbs

are

verbs

used

report

thought,

belief,

quote.

Com-

mon

reporting

verbs

include

argue

ask,

believe,

claim,

indicate,

report,

reply,

respond,

suggest,

and

tell.

important

use

that after

these

verbs

when

another verb follows. Look at

the following examples.

→ The studies indicated

that high school standar ds have risen in the

past ten years.

→ She claimed

that she didn’ t see the car approaching.

Subjunctive Clauses

You have already learned about the subjunctive form in the correct expres-

sion section. It is crucial that you include t

hat when

forming

sentence

with

subjunctive

verb.

This

small

difference

may

the

key

distinction

between

a right answer and a wrong one on the test.

X The state r

equires the school be pr

epared for an earthquake.

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The preceding sentence is incorrect because it did not include that after the

verb requires. Look at the corrected version:

→ The state r equires that the school be pr epared for an earthquake.

Verbs Ar e Gr eater Than Nouns

Clarity is an important concept in the GMAT sentence correction section.

Many sentences on this test will be complicated, long ideas. When possi-

ble, a t

hat clause

preferred

over

noun

formation

achieve

clearer

sen-

tence. Look at the following example:

X The

idea

about

change

being

inevitable is a key message in the campaign song.

This example is considered incorrect because it is wordy. An easy way to

correct this sentence is to change the noun clause (about change being

inevitable) to a that clause with a verb.

→ The idea that change is inevitable is a key message in the campaign song.

In this particular example, the number of words does not change, but the

second format is preferred because it is more clear and active. Look at a few

more examples:

X Reports about the violence spr eading in the Middle East have caused unr est at

home.

→ Reports that violence is spr eading in the Middle East have caused unr est at

home.

X The discover y of other planets capable of supporting life has caused a stir in the

world of science.

→ The discover

that other planets ar

e capable of supporting life

has caused a stir

in the world of science.

Avoiding W ordiness

Wordiness is a big issue on the GMAT sentence correction test. In addition

to the aforementioned

points,

the

following

hints

will

help

you

ensure

you

choose

the

most

concise

sentence

every

time.

Remember,

though,

that

these

points

are

considered

addition

any

grammar

problems.

You

may

tempted

immediately

choose

the

sentence

that

ﬁts

the

following

criteria.

However,

you

need

ﬁrst

make

sure

there

are

grammar

clar

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ity problems. The GMAT may try to trick you with a sentence that ﬁts the

following criteria, but has a grammar problem. Grammar will always be

your ﬁrst concern. If a sentence isn’t grammatically correct, there is no way

it can be considered a possible answer. With that in mind, review the fol

lowing points and keep them in mind as you tackle the questions.

Verbs Ar

e Gr

eater Than Nouns, Part II

sentence

may

include

action

noun,

noun

that

expresses

action.

Examples

include

arrival,

eating,

and

inspiration.

When

possible,

the

verb

form is preferred over the action noun. Look at

the following examples:

X His arrival

was an inspiration

to me.

This sentence is grammatically correct, but it could be more concise. Look

at the corrected, less wordy version:

→ His arrival inspired me.

X Their decision was

to continue the trip despite the bad weather for

ecast.

→ They decided

to continue the trip despite the bad weather for

ecast.

Verbs Ar

e Gr

eater Than Adjectives

When

possible,

try

use

verb

construction

over

adjective

construc-

tion for a less wordy sentence.

X His arrival

was inspirational to

me.

This

sentence

grammatically

correct,

but

could

concise.

Look

the corrected, less wordy version:

→ His arrival inspired me.

X The solution is irritating to the wound.

→ The solution irritates the wound.

Active V oice versus Passive V oice

You have already learned the difference between the active voice and pas-

sive voice in the correct expression section of this review. Although both

orms

are

grammatically

correct,

the

GMAT

will

generally

prefer

the

active

voice

the

passive

voice.

The

passive

voice

tends

make

sentences

longer

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and not as clear. When you notice that the passive voice form makes the

sentence more confusing, look at any active voice choices (if they exist) and

consider them as possible answers (provided they are grammatically sound).

The

passive

voice

can

the

correct

answer.

When

the

focus

the

sen-

tence

the

person

object

receiving

the

action,

not

the

doer

the

action,

then the passive voice is preferred.

Look at the following example:

→ The terrorist attack

was witnessed

by people all over the world.

this passive voice example, the focus is on the terrorist attack, not the peo-

ple all over the world. The sentence is clear and concise. Consider this point

when you encounter a question that uses the passive voice.

Avoiding Redundancy

The GMAT sentence correction test will test your ability to detect redun-

dancy in a sentence. It may, however, disguise redundancy in different parts

of speech.

Look at the following examples and keep them

in mind.

X At least 300 workers, if not mor

e, participated in the strike on Friday

This

sentence

incorrect

because

least and

not

more convey

the

same

idea.

Therefore,

one

those

expressions

can

eliminated.

Look

cor-

rected version of the sentence:

→ At least 300 workers participated in the strike on Friday

X The doctors can potentially save the girl’

s life if they ﬁnd a donor in time.

This

sentence

incorrect

because

can

potentially is

redundant.

Both

can and

potentially indicate

possibility,

only

one

them

necessary.

Look

corrected version of the sentence.

→ The doctors can save the girl’

s life if they ﬁnd a donor in time.

Also,

avoid

double

comparatives

double

superlatives.

Adding

the

sufﬁx

-er or

-est to

modiﬁer

and

preceding

the

modiﬁer

with

more or

most is

redundant.

X Lindsey amazed the class with her grammatical skills; she was the most

smartest person they had ever seen.

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This sentence is incorrect. Lindsey is already the smartest. Most also means

smartest, so the phrase most smartest is redundant.

→ Lindsey amazed the class with her grammatical skills; she was the smartest

person they had ever seen.

Avoid double negatives.

X Tom har dly did not feel tense whenever he approached grammar .

This sentence is incorrect because hardly and did not cancel each other out.

The sentence really reads: Tom felt tense whenever approaching grammar. The

correct sentence should read:

→ Tom har dly felt tense whenever he approached grammar .

Beware of Eliminating T oo Much

Now that you are very aware of wordiness and redundancy, you must also

beware of common pitfalls that

can occur when you eliminate too much.

Prepositional Phrases

A prepositional phrase is a phrase that contains a preposition and a noun.

Simple phrases

such

the

bathroom

ﬂoor or

from

the

Dead

Sea are

prepo-

sitional

phrases.

These

will

pop

the

GMAT

sentence

correction

test.

effort

eliminate

wordiness,

you

may

tempted

combine

these

prepositional

phrases

with

the

nouns

they

modify,

such

the

following

example:

A planter of bricks

→ A brick planter

Both phrases are correct. Obviously

, the second example is less wordy

*In

general,

okay

combine

prepositional

phrase

with

its

noun

hen

the

preposition

of,

except

when

you

have

time

period,

quan-

tity, or other measurement as the initial word.

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However, when the prepositional phrase involves a preposition other than

of, it is best to avoid combining the phrase with its noun. Look at the fol-

lowing examples:

gold from the San Francisco ar ea instead of San Francisco ar ea gold

dust on the bathroom ﬂoor instead of bathroom ﬂoor dust

the amount of water instead of the water amount

In these instances, it is best to keep the longer phrase to avoid confusion.

Avoiding Changes in Meaning

The GMAT sentence correction test may present two grammatically cor-

rect options, but one sentence has slightly changed the meaning of the orig-

inal sentence presented as choice a. You must not change the original

meaning. Look out for these common pitfalls:

Change in Modals

Modals such as may,

might,

must,

and

should exist

modify

verb.

might

go is

different

from

must

go,

which

different

from

should

go,

and

on.

careful

that

modal

has

not

changed

and

altered

the

original

message

in a sentence!

Change in V

erbs

effort

reduce

wordiness,

you

may

tempted

change

verb

and

opt

for

one

that

expresses

action

with

fewer

words.

Make

sure

the

mean-

ing does not

change in this process. For example:

The idea developed into a fantastic plan.

The idea is a fantastic plan.

These

two

sentences

are

not

equivalent.

The

ﬁrst

one

stresses

the

process

the

idea

changing

into

plan,

while

the

second

sentence

does

not

even

mention

it.

Make

sure

you

continue

convey

any

expressed

process

change in an improved sentence.

Change in Syntax (Placement of Modiﬁers)

Changing

the

placement

modiﬁer

sentence

can

greatly

change

the

meaning

sentence.

When

you

review

the

choices

for

question,

pay

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particular attention to any modiﬁers and whether their location in the sen-

tence has changed. This change could alter the meaning and help you

quickly eliminate that choice as a possible answer. Some of these changes

may be very subtle, and some may be more obvious. Look at the following

examples:

Just Heather was selected to participate in the sleep study

Heather was just selected to participate in the sleep study

The dentist, a r

ecent graduate from USC’

s School of Dentistr

y, selected his

partner for his new practice.

The dentist selected his partner

, a r

ecent graduate from USC’

s School of

Dentistry, for his new practice.

Logical Comparisons (Logical Predication)

Comparisons

must

make

sense

and

compare

similar

things.

The

GMAT

may

try

trick

you

testing

for

logical

comparison

and

conciseness.

Look at

the following example:

X Unlike Mark T

wain’s

The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn

, written in

the ﬁrst person, Oscar W

ilde wrote his classic

The Picture of Dorian

Gray in the thir

d person.

Upon

ﬁrst

look,

this

sentence

may

appear

correct.

is,

however,

making

illogical

comparison

associating

Mark

Twain’s The

Adventures

Huck-

leberry

Finn

book)

with

Oscar

Wilde (an

author).

book

cannot

log-

ically

compared

author.

author

can

compared

another

author,

book

can

compared

another

book.

Look

corrected

version

the sentence:

→ Unlike Mark T

wain, who wrote

The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn

in the ﬁrst person, Oscar W

ilde wrote his classic

The Picture of Dorian

Gray in the thir

d person.

This

sentence

logically

compares

the

two

authors.

Such

comparisons

are

favorite

topic

the

GMAT

sentence

correction

test,

pay

attention

when comparisons are made!

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Diction (Word Choice)

Diction is a common issue on GMAT sentence correction questions. Some

of the most popular choices are

explained and highlighted with examples.

The GMAT sentence correction portion is also known to change words for

look-alikes in the different answer choices (e.g., practical for practicable). Be

sure that you read each choice carefully to make sure the meaning has not

changed.

Study

these

issues

and

keep

them

mind

you

tackle

the

sentence

cor-

rection questions.

According to versus In accordance with

According to is used to attribute information to a source:

→ According to

nutritionists, protein is a cr ucial part of our diet.

In accordance with is used to indicate compliance:

→ Every day I eat protein in accordance with my nutritionist’s instructions.

The correct use of in accordance with is restricted to following rules, conven-

tions, or established patterns. An actual rule or convention needs to be stated.

Amount of versus Number of

Amount of refers to an uncountable noun

(a noun that cannot be counted,

such as information)

→ The amount of information on the Internet is overwhelming.

Number of refers to a countable noun (a

noun that can be counted, such

as websites)

→ The number of websites dedicated to beauty products is overwhelming.

Because of versus Due to

Because of answers the question why? It is an adverbial phrase that modi-

ﬁes a verb.

→ He won because of his persistence and drive.

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Due to is an adjectival phrase that modiﬁes a noun. It commonly follows a

form of the verb to be .

→ His win was due to his persistence and drive.

Between versus Among

Between is used when referring to two concepts, and before the word each.

→ He placed second between John and Rachel.

→ They have 10 minutes to r est between each event.

Among is used when referring to three or more concepts.

→ He divided his property among his four childr en.

Farther versus Further

Farther is the comparative form of far, which is used to refer to distance.

→ She drove farther today than she did yester day.

Further is also the comparative form of far, but it can be used to refer to

distances and ﬁgurative distance.

→ She took the idea one step further than what we had anticipated.

Few versus Little

Few is used to refer to a countable noun (a noun that can be counted, such

as websites)

→ There ar e few beauty websites that ar e not tr ying to sell a product.

Little is used to refer to an uncountable noun (a noun that cannot be

counted, such as information)

→ There is little information in this pamphlet that I consider tr ustworthy.

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Fewer versus Less

Fewer is the comparative form of few, used to refer to a countable noun

(such as websites)

→ There ar e fewer websites in Spanish than ther e ar e in English.

Less is the comparative form of little, used to refer to an uncountable noun

(such as information)

→ There is less information on the Inter net in Spanish than ther e is in

English.

For + Gerund versus T o + V erb (Inﬁnitive)

The for + gerund form is used to express the function of a thing or object.

→ This machine is used for counting coins.

The to + verb (inﬁnitive) form is used to express the purpose of a thing/

object, but also of a person.

→ This machine is used to count coins.

→ She went to the stor e to buy eggs.

Like versus As

Like is used to compare only nouns, and therefore should be followed by

only a noun, pronoun, or noun phrase.

→ Like her sister , Alice loves to paint.

As is used to compare clauses, and therefore should be followed by a clause.

→ As her sister does, Alice loves to paint.

Like versus Such as

Like is used to express the idea similar to .

→ Like soccer, football is a ver y competitive sport.

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Questions

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Such as is used to list examples.

→ There ar e many competitive sports, such as football and soccer .

Much versus Many

Much is

used

describe an uncountable noun (a noun that cannot be

counted, such as information)

→ There is too much information on the Inter net.

Many is used to describe a countable noun (a noun that can be counted,

such as sources)

→ Joshua backed up his r esearch with many different sources.

Native of versus Native to

Native of is used only when referring to people.

→ Jacob was bor n and raised in W ashington, so he is a native of Washington.

Native to is used when referring to species, crops, and so on.

→ Corn is native to North America.

Rather than versus Instead of

Rather than shows preference, and can be followed by a clause.

→ They invested in land rather than machinery.

→ Rather than invest in machiner y, they invested in land.

Instead of s

hows replacement, but not necessarily preference. Also, it must

be followed by a noun or noun clause because of the preposition of. It can-

not be followed by a clause like rather than .

→ He drank coffee instead of tea.

→ They invested in land

instead of

machinery.

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Questions

That versus Which

That is used in a restrictive or essential clause to introduce information that

is necessary to a sentence. It directly follows the noun that it modiﬁes.

→ She avoids animals that appear dangerous. (In this example, she only

avoids those animals that appear dangerous, not all animals.)

Which is

used

nonrestrictive

nonessential

clause

introduce

addi-

tional

information that is not necessary to the meaning of a sentence. A

comma is used between the noun it modiﬁes and which.

→ She avoids animals, which appear dangerous. (In this example, she

avoids all animals because they appear dangerous.)

Set 6

Now it is time to answer 41 GMAT Sentence Correction practice questions

that have been designed to test your effective expression skills. Since you

have already been exposed to the correct expression skills and questions,

you may encounter some concepts from the Correct Expression portion.

This has been done to prepare you for the real test, which will combine

concepts from both sections. Good luck!

134. Having been accused of polluting huge areas of the Ecuadorian

Amazon from its oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s ,

Chevron is currently involved in the biggest environmental lawsuit

the world has ever seen.

a. Having been accused of polluting huge areas of the Ecuadorian

Amazon from its oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s

b. Being accused of polluting huge Ecuadorian Amazon areas from

its oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s

c. Accused of polluting huge areas of the Ecuadorian Amazon

from its oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s

d. Having been accused of polluting huge Ecuadorian Amazon

areas from their oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s

e. Due to being accused of polluting huge areas of the Ecuadorian

Amazon from its oil operations there in the 1970s and 1980s

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Questions

135. Inspired by the success of Disneyland Paris, one French politician

wants to create France’ s very own theme park devoted to Napoleon

Bonaparte, with construction slated to begin in 2014 provided

enough funds are raised.

a. Inspired by the success of Disneyland Paris, one French politi-

cian wants to create France’s very own theme park devoted to

Napoleon Bonaparte, with construction slated to begin in 2014

provided enough funds are raised.

b. Inspired by the success of Disneyland Paris with construction

slated to begin in 2014, one French politician wants to create

France’s very own theme park devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte,

provided enough funds are raised.

c. One French politician wants to create France’s very own theme

park devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte, inspired by the success of

Disneyland Paris with construction slated to begin in 2014 pro

vided enough funds are raised.

d. One French politician, inspired by the success of Disneyland

Paris, wants to create France’

s very own theme park devoted to

Napoleon Bonaparte, with construction slated to begin,

pro

vided enough funds are raised, in 2014.

e. With construction slated to begin in 2014,

provided enough

funds are raised, one French politician wants to create France’s

very own theme park inspired by the success of Disneyland

Paris devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte.

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Questions

136. Yellow saddle goatﬁsh in the Red Sea have the capability to hunt in

groups, groups with designated members who spread out to cut off

the escape routes of the prey

a. Yellow saddle goatﬁsh in the Red Sea have the capability to

hunt in groups, groups with designated members who spread

out to cut off the escape routes of the prey.

b. Red Sea yellow saddle goatﬁsh are capable of hunting in groups,

groups with designated members who spread out to cut off the

prey’s escape routes.

c. Red Sea yellow saddle goatﬁsh have the capability to hunt in

groups with designated chosen members who spread out

to cut

off the prey’s escape routes.

d. Yellow saddle goatﬁsh in the Red Sea are capable of hunting in

groups with designated members who spread out to cut

off the

prey’s escape routes.

e. Red Sea yellow saddle goatﬁsh possess the capability to hunt in

groups, groups with designated chosen members who spread

out to cut off the escape routes of the prey.

137. The hypothesis about

the coevolution of species, such as a

predator and prey , adapting to each other’ s evolutionary changes, is

fascinating.

a. The hypothesis about the coevolution of species, such as a pred-

ator and prey, adapting to each other’s evolutionary changes, is

fascinating.

b. The hypothesis that species, such as a predator and prey,

coevolve to adapt to each other’s evolutionary changes is

fascinating.

c. Coevolution, where species like a predator and prey adapt to

each other’

s evolutionary changes, is a hypothesis that is fasci-

nating.

d. The hypothesis regarding coevolution, like a predator and prey

adapting to each other’

s evolutionary changes, fascinates.

e. The hypothesis that species, like a predator and prey, coevolve

to adapt to each other’s evolutionary changes is fascinating.

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Questions

138. The belief that whales were terrestrial mammals that transitioned

into the ocean is supported by evidence of whale fossils with legs

and knees.

a. The belief that whales were terrestrial mammals that transi-

tioned into the ocean is supported by evidence of whale fossils

with legs and knees.

b. The belief about whales being terrestrial mammals which tran-

sitioned into the ocean was supported by whale fossils having

legs and knees.

c. The belief about whales as terrestrial mammals transitioning

into the ocean have been supported by evidence of whale fossils

with legs and knees.

d. The belief that whales were terrestrial mammals that made the

transition into the ocean is supported by evidence of whale fos-

sils with legs and knees.

e. Whale fossils with legs and knees is evidence supporting the

belief of whales as once being terrestrial mammals.

139. A new study found

that the representation of global migrants on a

world scale is overpowered by Christians, who overrepresent a

high 49%.

a. that the representation of global migrants on a world scale is

overpowered by Christians, who overrepresent a high 49%.

b. that Christians overrepresent a high 49% of the world scale of

global migrants.

c. that Christians are overrepresented by an elevated 49% on the

world scale of global migrants.

d. that Christians represent an overwhelming 49% of global

migrants on a world scale.

e. that 49% of global migrants are represented overwhelmingly

high by Christians.

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Questions

140. New workforce trends suggest that a large number of working

wives will outearn their husbands within a generation.

a. New workforce trends suggest that a large number of working

wives will outearn their husbands within a generation.

b. According to new workforce trends, a majority of working wives

will be outearning their husbands with greater wages within the

next generation.

c. New workforce trends within a generation suggest an outearn-

ing of a large number of working wives by their husbands.

d. Within a generation, a large number of husbands will be out-

earned by their working wives, according to new workforce

trends.

e. New workforce trends suggest an outearning of husbands by a

majority of their working wives within the next

generation.

141. An article revealed

one language dies every 14 days because of

communities abandoning native tongues in favor of more common

ones.

a. one language dies every 14 days because of communities aban-

doning native tongues in favor of more common ones.

b. that one language dies every 14 days due to communities aban-

doning native tongues in favor of more common ones.

c. that one language dies every 14 days because communities

abandon native tongues in favor of more common ones.

d. one language dies every 14 days because communities abandon

native tongues in favor of more common ones.

e. the death of one language every 14 days because communities

are favoring more common tongues.

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142. With initial deployment scheduled in the San Joaquin and

Sacramento valleys, the Picarro is the ﬁrst of many analyzers that is

part of a long-term effort of subjecting carbon dioxide, methane,

and other greenhouse gas emissions

to statewide scrutiny and

investigation.

a. many analyzers that is part of a long-term effort of subjecting

carbon dioxide, methane, and other greenhouse gas emissions

b. many analyzers, which is a part of a long-term effort to subject

how carbon dioxide, methane, and other greenhouse gases emit

c. many analyzers, part

of a long-term effort of subjecting how

carbon dioxide, methane, and other greenhouse gases are

emitting

d. many analyzers that are part

of an effort in the long term that

has subjected the carbon dioxide, methane, and other green-

house gas emissions

e. many analyzers that are part of a long-term effort to subject

carbon dioxide, methane,

and other greenhouse gas emissions

143. Scientists have observed large cracks that go on for miles in

gigantic Antarctica icebergs,

which are consistent

with the

predictions of global warming.

a. gigantic Antarctica icebergs, which are consistent with the pre-

dictions of global warming.

b. gigantic icebergs in Antarctica, ﬁndings consistent with the pre-

dictions of global warming.

c. gigantic icebergs in Antarctica, consistent with the predictions

of global warming.

d. gigantic Antarctica icebergs, where the predictions of global

warming agree with these ﬁndings.

e. gigantic Antarctica icebergs, ﬁndings consistent with the global

warming predictions.

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Questions

144.

However ten European nations have approved the installation of

cobblestones bearing the names of Nazi victims peppered

throughout their cities, regardless some municipalities argue that

enough

exist and the idea is inappropriate.

a. However ten European nations have approved the installation

of cobblestones bearing the names of Nazi victims peppered

throughout their cities, regardless some municipalities argue

that enough

b. In spite of ten European nations having approved installing

cobblestones bearing Nazi victims’ names peppered throughout

their cities, regardless some municipalities argue that enough

Holocaust memorials

c. T

en European nations have approved the cobblestone installa-

tion bearing the names of Nazi victims peppered throughout

their cities, but some municipalities argue that

enough

d. Although ten European nations have approved the installation

of cobblestones bearing the names of Nazi victims to be pep-

pered throughout their cities,

some municipalities argue that

enough Holocaust memorials

e. Despite ten European nations approving cobblestone installa-

tion bearing Nazi victims’ names peppered throughout their

cities, some municipalities argue that enough Holocaust

memorials

145.

An entrepreneur seeking a loan from a ﬁnancial institution will

ﬁnd it difﬁcult to persuade a lender if there is a lacking concrete

business plan to prove his or her potential for success.

a. if there is a lacking concrete business plan to prove

b. unless there will be a concrete business plan to prove

c. if there is an absence of a concrete business plan to prove

d. without a concrete business plan that proves

e. in the case there is not a business plan proving

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Questions

146.

Very little has the ability to grow in the Andean highlands of Peru

due to the thin air, scarce water supply, and rocky terrain.

a. has the ability to grow in the Andean highlands of Peru due to

b. is able of growing in the Andean highlands of Peru caused by

c. can grow in the Andean highlands of Peru because

d. can grow in the Andean highlands of Peru due to

e. can grow in the Andean highlands of Peru because of

147.

New shifts in the organization of Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry

are expected to build its increasing competitiveness in the market

of international energy.

a. the organization of Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry are expected

to build its increasing competitiveness in the market of interna-

tional energy.

b. Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry organization are expected to

build its competitiveness in the international energy market.

c. the organization of Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry are expected

to increase its competitiveness in the international energy

market.

d. Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry organization predict growth in

its surging competitiveness within the international energy

market.

e. the organization of Mexico’

s hydrocarbon industry are pre-

dicted to increase its surging competitiveness in the interna-

tional energy market.

148.

The mountain climber’s decision to abandon his friend on the

slope to ﬁnd help would change the lives of both men.

a. mountain climber’s decision to abandon his friend on the slope

to ﬁnd help would change the lives of both men.

b. decision from the mountain climber that led to him abandoning

his friend on the slope to ﬁnd help would change both men’s

lives.

c. decision made by the mountain climber on the slope of aban-

doning his friend to ﬁnd help would be life-changing for both

men.

d. mountain climber’s decision of abandoning his friend on the

slope to ﬁnd help would change the lives of both men.

e. mountain climber’s decision to abandon his friend to ﬁnd help

on the slope would change the lives of both men.

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Questions

149.

The UN’s High Commission for Refugees (UNHCR) indicates

that while there was a slight decrease in the number of refugees at

the end of 2009,

the number of internally displaced people within

their own countries rose up to 27.5 million people at the end of

2010.

a. the number of internally displaced people within their own

countries rose up to 27.5 million people at the end of 2010.

b. the number of internally displaced people rose to 27.5 million

people at the end of 2010.

c. the number of internally displaced people increased to an

ampliﬁed 27.5 million people at

the end of 2010.

d. the number of displaced people within their own countries rose

to 27.5 million people at the end of 2010.

e. the number of internally displayed people increased to 27.5 mil-

lion people at the end of 2010.

150.

Unlike the Washington Monument, the structure of the San

Jacinto Memorial Monument is not comprised entirely of stone, in

spite of being taller.

a. the structure of the San Jacinto Memorial Monument is not

comprised entirely of stone, in spite of being taller.

b. the San Jacinto Memorial Monument’s structure is not com-

prised entirely of stone, despite being taller.

c. the San Jacinto Memorial Monument

is not comprised entirely

of stone, although it is taller.

d. the structure of the San Jacinto Memorial Monument is not

comprised entirely of stone, although it is taller.

e. the San Jacinto Memorial Monument is not comprised entirely

of stone, in addition to being taller.

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Questions

151.

Revolutionary 3-D printers are evidence that far-fetched Star Trek

ideas have become a reality, as users are allowed to create physical

items from digital blueprints.

a. Revolutionary 3-D printers are evidence that far-fetched Star

Trek ideas have become a reality, as users are allowed to create

physical items from

digital blueprints.

b. Revolutionary 3-D printers, which allow users to create physical

items from digital blueprints, are evidence of far-fetched Star

Trek

ideas being a modern reality.

c. The idea that far-fetched Star Trek ideas have become a reality

is supported by the invention of revolutionary 3-D printers,

which allow users to create physical items from digital blue

prints.

d. Proving that far-fetched Star Trek ideas have become a reality,

revolutionary 3-D printers allow users to create physical items

from digital blueprints.

e. As proof of far-fetched Star Trek ideas being a reality, revolu-

tionary 3-D printers allow users to create physical items from

digital blueprints.

152.

According to the American Red Cross, approximately 300,000

homes were damaged or destroyed by Hurricane Katrina, the

worst natural disaster in United States history.

a. approximately 300,000 homes were damaged or destroyed by

Hurricane Katrina, the worst natural disaster in United States

history.

b. Hurricane Katrina, the worst natural disaster in United States

history, was responsible for the damage and destruction of

approximately 300,000 homes.

c. approximately 300,000 homes were damaged or destroyed by

Hurricane Katrina, which is considered as the worst natural dis-

aster in United States history.

d. approximately 300,000 homes were damaged and destroyed

thanks to Hurricane Katrina, considered the worst natural dis-

aster in United States history.

e. Hurricane Katrina, the worst natural disaster in United States

history

, was responsible for damaging or destroying exactly

300,000 homes.

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Questions

153.

In contrast to older automobiles that primarily used steel for its

durability and cost, carmakers are now turning to aluminum to

meet new fuel efﬁciency standards, remaining competitive in the

ever-changing market.

a. carmakers are now turning to aluminum to meet new fuel efﬁ-

ciency standards, remaining

b. aluminum

is now being used by carmakers to meet new fuel

efﬁciency standards, thereby remaining

c. newer automobiles are now using aluminum to meet

new fuel

efﬁciency standards and remain

d. newer automobiles are now using aluminum to meet new fuel

efﬁciency standards, remaining

e. new fuel efﬁciency standards have forced carmakers to turn to

aluminum and remain

154.

China’s population control methods, which included a one-child

policy imposed in 1979, helped slow the fast annual rate of

population growth per year, though

many denounced the policy as

an abuse of human rights.

a. which included a one-child policy imposed in 1979, helped slow

the fast annual rate of population growth per year

, though

b. which included a one-child policy imposed in 1979, helped slow

the high annual rate of population growth, though

c. which included a one-child policy imposed in 1979, helped slow

the fast rate of population growth per year, in addition

d. which included a one-child policy imposed in 1979, helped

decrease the quick annual rate of population growth, moreover

e. which included a one-child policy imposed in 1979, helped slow

the high annual rate of population growth per year; however

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Questions

155.

Tasmanian devils, native of the island of Tasmania close to

Australia, are endangered because of a cancer called Devil Facial

Tumor Disease.

a. native of the island of Tasmania close to Australia, are endan-

gered because of a cancer called Devil Facial Tumor Disease.

b. native of the island of Tasmania close to Australia, are endan-

gered because of a Devil Facial Tumor Disease cancer.

c. native of the Tasmania Island close to Australia, are endangered

due to a cancer called Devil Facial T

umor Disease.

d. native to the island of Tasmania close to Australia, are endan-

gered due to a Devil Facial Tumor Disease cancer.

e. native to the island of T

asmania close to Australia, are endan-

gered because of a cancer called Devil Facial Tumor Disease.

156.

Instead of viewing their money as a way to alleviate poverty,

microﬁnance is now seen by some donors as primarily an

investment opportunity.

a. Instead of viewing their money as a way to alleviate poverty,

microﬁnance is now seen by some donors as primarily an

investment opportunity.

b. Instead of viewing their money as a way to alleviate poverty,

microﬁnance is now currently being seen by some donors as

primarily an investment opportunity.

c. Rather than view their money as a way to alleviate poverty,

some donors are now primarily seeing microﬁnance as an

investment opportunity in today’s world.

d. Rather than view their money as a way to alleviate poverty

some donors now see microﬁnance as primarily an investment

opportunity.

e. Instead of view their money as a way to alleviate poverty, some

donors now see microﬁnance as an investment opportunity in

today’s world.

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Questions

157.

Experts have differences over how tarantulas make silk come out of

their feet for maintaining a grip on steep, slippery surfaces.

a. have differences over how tarantulas make silk come out of

their feet for maintaining a grip on

b. have differing opinions as to how tarantulas make silk come out

of their feet for maintaining a grip on

c. differ as to how tarantulas are able to create silk with their feet

in order to maintain a grip on

d. differ over how tarantulas emit silk from their feet in order to

maintain a grip on

e. disagree over the abilities of tarantulas to emit silk from their

feet for maintaining a grip on

158.

The federal legislation mandated the right to have their leases

honored to tenants in the event of a foreclosure of the land being

rented.

a. The federal legislation mandated the right to have their leases

honored for tenants in the event of a foreclosure of the property

being rented.

b. Tenant leases were required to be honored in the case of a fore-

closure of the property the tenant is renting, according to fed-

eral legislation.

c. The federal legislation made mandatory for tenants to have

their leases honored in the event of a foreclosed rental property

d. The federal legislation made mandatory that existing tenant

leases have to be honored if a rental property is foreclosed.

e. The federal legislation mandated that tenant leases be honored

in the event

of a foreclosed rental property.

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Questions

159.

Enthusiastic about the upcoming reception lunch approaching,

Mrs. Brown hastily phoned her committee members to assign tasks

and delegate responsibilities.

a. Enthusiastic about the upcoming reception lunch approaching,

Mrs. Brown hastily phoned her committee members to

b. Being enthusiastic about the upcoming reception lunch

approaching, Mrs. Brown phoned her committee members in a

hastily manner to

c. Feeling enthusiastic about the upcoming reception lunch, Mrs.

Brown hastily phoned her committee members to

d. Enthusiastic with regards to the reception lunch approaching,

the committee members were hastily phoned to

e. Enthusiastic about the upcoming reception lunch, Mrs. Brown

hastily phoned her committee members in a rushed effort to

160.

In an effort to understand climate change and rising sea levels,

scientists studied and researched samples of coral and discovered

that the ocean level rose by an increase of 46 to 60 feet 14,650

years ago.

a. scientists studied and researched samples of coral and discov-

ered that the ocean level rose by an increase of 46 to 60 feet

14,650 years ago.

b. scientists studied samples of coral and discovered that the ocean

level increased 46 to 60 feet 14,650 years ago.

c. scientists studied coral samples, discovering that the growth of

the ocean level went

up 46 to 60 feet 14,650 years ago.

d. scientists studied samples of coral, thereby discovering the

rise of the ocean level by an increased 46 to 60 feet 14,650

years ago.

e. samples of coral were studied and researched by scientists, who

discovered that the ocean level rose by 46 to 60 more feet

14,650 years ago.

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Questions

161.

It is possible that more than half of the babies in the wealthiest

nations of today may reach to live to 100 years, with greater

chances increasing if they’re wealthy or slim.

a. more than half of the babies in the wealthiest nations of today

may reach to live to 100 years, with greater chances increasing

if they’re wealthy or slim.

b. more than half of today’s wealthiest nations’ babies, if they’re

wealthy or slim, will live to be 100 years old.

c. more than half of the babies in today’s wealthiest nations will

live to 100 years, with greater chances if they’re wealthy or slim.

d. with greater chances increasing if he or she is wealthy or slim,

more than half of the babies who are from the wealthiest

nations of today might live to 100 years.

e. more than half of today’s wealthiest nations’ babies may live to

be 100 years old if they’re wealthy or slim.

162. Efforts to stabilize the political and social climate of Colombia

have resulted in

large-scale rescues of kidnapping victims,

internationally coordinated arrests of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal

captures of left-wing terrorist

groups, and renewed conﬁdence in

the nation’

s politicians.

a. large-scale rescues of kidnapping victims, internationally coordi-

nated arrests of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal captures of left-wing ter-

rorist groups, and renewed conﬁdence in the nation’s politicians.

b. sweeping rescuing of kidnapping victims, internationally coor-

dinated arrests of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal capturing of left-wing

terrorist

groups, and a renewed sense of conﬁdence in the

nation’s politicians.

c. sweeping rescuing of kidnapping victims, internationally coor-

dinated arresting of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal capturing of left-

wing terrorist groups, and renewed feelings of conﬁdence in the

nation’s politicians.

d. large-scale rescues of kidnapping victims, internationally coor-

dinated arrests of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal captures of terrorist

groups who are progressive in their ideals, and renewed conﬁ-

dence in the nation’s politicians.

e. sweeping rescues of kidnapping victims, internationally coordi-

nated arrests of drug trafﬁckers, pivotal captures of idealistically

progressive terrorist groups, and renovated conﬁdence in the

nation’

s politicians.

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Questions

163. A judge in New Y ork recently ruled that the 613 victims of one of

the most noteworthy Ponzi schemes should be in total paid out a

sum of $6.2 million, coming from personal and business assets that

were seized after an undercover investigation that was directed by

the U.S. Postal Service and the IRS.

a. that the 613 victims of one of the most noteworthy Ponzi

schemes should be in total paid out a sum of $6.2 million, com-

ing from personal and business assets that were seized after an

undercover investigation that was directed by the U.S. Postal

Service and the IRS.

b. that the 613 victims of one of the most noteworthy Ponzi

schemes be paid out

a total of $6.2 million, which was seized in

personal and business assets following an undercover investiga

tion by the U.S. Postal Service and the IRS.

c. that the state must pay out $6.2 million to the 613 victims of

one of the most noteworthy Ponzi schemes, with the money

having come from the sale of personal and business assets,

which were seized after an undercover investigation that was

directed by the U.S. Postal Service and the IRS.

d. that the 613 victims of one of the most

noteworthy Ponzi

schemes ought to be paid out a total of $6.2 million, which were

from selling the personal and business assets that were seized

following an undercover investigation led by the U.S. Postal

Service and the IRS.

e. that the state must pay out to the 613 victims of one of the most

noteworthy Ponzi schemes a total of $6.2 million, derived from

the sale of personal and business assets that were seized follow

ing a joint U.S. Postal Service and IRS investigation.

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Questions

164.

A harsh new tobacco law in Australia has encountered massive

resistance from big tobacco companies that argue the new rules

abuse intellectual property rights and diminish the value of their

trademarks.

a. argue the new rules abuse intellectual property rights and

diminish the value of their trademarks.

b. argue on the grounds of intellectual property rights being vio-

lated or trademark values being diminished by the new rules.

c. argue that the new rules intellectually abuse property rights and

devalue their trademarks.

d. argue that the new rules abuse intellectual property rights and

devalue their trademarks.

e. argue that the new rules abuse property rights intellectually or

devalue their trademarks.

165.

Video game enthusiasts emphasize that a handful of deaths from

extended gaming are an inadequate means of predicting long-term

effects of video gaming and underscore that experts remain divided

on whether the overall health of gamers will suffer in the long

term and what impact their compromised health would have on

society.

a. on whether the overall health of gamers will suffer in the long

term and what impact their compromised health would have on

society.

b. on whether compromised health will be suffered among gamers

in the long term and what impact society would feel.

c. if gamers’ health will suffer in the long term or not and what

impact their compromised health would have on society

d. over whether gamers will become not as healthy or the impact

their compromised health will have on society.

e. as to whether fewer gamers will be healthy or the impact their

health would have on society if they were.

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Questions

166.

Alaska is feeling the impact of global warming more than its fellow

states as average temperatures in Alaska have risen greater than

twice the national average, according

to data released by the U.S.

Global Change Research Program that was compiled over the past

50 years.

a. greater than twice the national average, according to data

released by the U.S. Global Change Research Program that was

compiled over the past

50 years.

b. over twice the national average, in keeping with data compiled

during the past 50 years released by the U.S. Global Change

Research Program.

c. more than twice the national average, in accordance with data

compiled over the past 50 years and released by the U.S. Global

Change Research Program.

d. more than twice the national average, according to 50-year

-old

data released by the U.S. Global Change Research Program.

e. more than twice the national average, according to data com-

piled over the past 50 years and released by the U.S. Global

Change Research Program.

167.

One of the most pressing concerns facing lawyers who have just

graduated from law school is the amount of fellow graduates who

currently outnumber the amount of available job openings.

a. is the amount of fellow graduates who currently outnumber the

amount of available job openings.

b. is the amount of fellow graduates that currently outnumbers the

amount of available job openings.

c. is the number of fellow graduates that currently exceeds the

number of job openings.

d. is the number of fellow graduates who currently exceed the

number of available job openings.

e. is the number of fellow graduates that currently exceed a num-

ber of job openings.

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Questions

168.

Since its opening in 1869, the Suez Canal has made transportation

by water among Europe and Asia easier by providing a connection

between the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.

a. the Suez Canal has made transportation by water among

Europe and Asia easier by providing a connection between the

Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.

b. the Suez Canal has eased transportation between Europe and

Asia by water to a greater degree by providing

a connection

between the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.

c. the Suez Canal has facilitated maritime transportation between

Europe and Asia by connecting the Mediterranean Sea and the

Red Sea.

d. transportation between Europe and Asia has been facilitated by

the Suez Canal, which connects the Mediterranean Sea to the

Red Sea.

e. Europe and Asia transportation has been relieved thanks to the

Suez Canal, a connection between the Mediterranean Sea and

the Red Sea.

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Questions

169.

The success of sailboat racing as a television sport largely depends

on the technology in the helicopters that ﬂy above to a great deal,

technology so advanced that it makes the insertion of a ﬁrst-down

line during the broadcast of a football game seem insigniﬁcant.

a. largely depends on the technology in the helicopters that ﬂy

above to a great deal, technology so advanced that it makes the

insertion of a ﬁrst-down line during the broadcast of a football

game seem insigniﬁcant.

b. to a great

deal depends on the helicopter technology that ﬂies

above, technology so advanced that it

makes the insertion of a

ﬁrst-down line during the broadcast of a football game seem

insigniﬁcant.

c. to a great deal depends on the helicopter technology that ﬂy

above, technology so advanced that it

makes the ﬁrst-down line

during a football game seem insigniﬁcant.

d. largely depends on the technology in the helicopters that ﬂy

above, technology so advanced that it makes the insertion of a

ﬁrst-down line during

a football game broadcast seem

insigniﬁcant.

e. largely depends on the advanced technology in the helicopters

ﬂying above that make the insertion of a ﬁrst-down line during

a football game broadcast seem insigniﬁcant.

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Questions

170.

Hans Krasa had only begun to emerge as a celebrated composer,

having written the short fairy tale opera Brundibar, when the grips

of Nazism took their hold and rendered his additional developing

as a composer

impossible.

a. Krasa had only begun to emerge as a celebrated composer, hav-

ing written the short fairy tale opera Brundibar, when the grips

of Nazism took their hold and rendered his additional develop-

ing as a composer

b. Krasa had only hardly begun to emerge as a celebrated com-

poser, having written a short fairy tale opera by the name of

undibar

, when the grips of Nazism took their hold and ren-

dered his farther professional development

c. Krasa had not hardly begun to emerge as a celebrated com-

poser, having written a short fairy tale opera by the name of

undibar

, when the grips of Nazism took their hold and ren-

dered his developing into a better composer

d. Krasa who wrote the short fairy tale opera Brundibar had not

hardly begun to emerge as a celebratory composer when he was

taken hold by the grips of Nazism and his further professional

development

was rendered

e. Krasa,

who wrote the short fairy tale opera Brundibar, had only

begun to emerge as a celebrated composer when the grips of

Nazism took their hold and rendered his further professional

development

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Questions

171.

In order to transfer media across a home from a computer to a

television, three items are needed: a media source, or server, that

contains all the media like pictures, music, and videos, a receiver

that supports the DLNA standard, which new “smart” TVs often

do; and a translator, which will convert

ﬁles to a readable format.

a. that contains all the media like pictures, music, and videos, a

receiver that supports the DLNA standard, which new “smart”

TVs often do; and a translator,

which will convert ﬁles to a

readable format.

b. that contains all the media such as pictures, music, and videos; a

receiver that supports the DLNA standard, which new “smart”

TVs often do; and a translator,

which will convert ﬁles to a

readable format.

c. which contains all the media like pictures, music, and videos, a

receiver that supports the DLNA standard, which new “smart”

TVs often do; and a translator,

which will convert ﬁles to a

readable format.

d. which contains all the media like pictures, music, and videos; a

receiver that supports the DLNA standard, that new “smart”

TVs often do; and a translator,

which will convert ﬁles to a

readable format.

e. that contains all the media such as pictures, music, and videos, a

receiver that supports the DLNA standard, which new “smart”

TVs do, and a translator, which will convert

ﬁles to a readable

format.

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Questions

172.

Certain ﬂea control methods can become ineffective if used

repeatedly on an animal; one reason is suggested by evidence that

ﬂeas, like cockroaches, adapt to their environment and become

increasingly immune to popular ﬂea medicine with each

generation.

a. Certain ﬂea control methods can become ineffective if used

repeatedly on an animal; one reason is suggested by evidence

that ﬂeas, like cockroaches, adapt to their environment

and

become increasingly immune to popular ﬂea medicine with

each generation.

b. If used repeatedly on an animal, one reason that certain ﬂea

control methods can become ineffective is suggested by evi-

dence that ﬂeas, like cockroaches, increasingly adapt to their

environment

and become more immune to popular ﬂea medi-

cine with each generation.

c. If used repeatedly on an animal, one reason certain ﬂea control

methods can become ineffective is suggested by evidence that

there are ﬂeas, like cockroaches, that

increasingly adapt

to their

environment and become more immune to popular ﬂea medi

cine with each generation.

d. Certain ﬂea control methods can become ineffective if they are

used repeatedly on an animal;

one reason, which derives from

evidence, suggests that ﬂeas, like cockroaches,

adapt to their

environment and become immune to increasingly popular ﬂea

medicine with each generation.

e. The evidence that ﬂeas, like cockroaches, adapt to their envi-

ronment and become increasingly immune to popular ﬂea med-

icine with each generation is suggestive of one reason, if used

repeatedly on an animal, certain ﬂea control methods can

become ineffective.

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Questions

173.

Oscar Arias, who won the Nobel Peace Prize for these efforts in

1987, submitted a peace plan for a series of disputes which led to

the Esquipulas Peace Agreement among multiple nations of

Central America, namely El Salvador, Guatemala, Nicaragua,

Honduras, and Panama, at a time when various armed conﬂicts

were threatening the stability of the Central American region.

a. Oscar Arias, who won the Nobel Peace Prize for these efforts in

1987, submitted a peace plan for a series of disputes which led

to the Esquipulas Peace Agreement among multiple nations of

Central America, namely El Salvador,

Guatemala, Nicaragua,

Honduras, and Panama, at a time when various armed conﬂicts

were threatening the stability of the Central American region.

b. Oscar Arias submitted a peace plan, which was for a series of

disputes leading to the Esquipulas Peace Agreement among

multiple nations of Central America, namely El Salvador,

Guatemala, Nicaragua, Honduras, and Panama,

at a time when

various armed conﬂicts were threatening the stability of the

Central American region, earning him the Nobel Peace Prize in

1987.

c. Being the receptor of the Nobel Peace Prize for his efforts in

1987, Oscar Arias submitted a peace plan for a series of various

armed conﬂicts that were threatening the stability of the Cen

tral American region which led to the Esquipulas Peace Agree-

ment between El Salvador

, Guatemala, Nicaragua, Honduras,

and Panama.

d. At a time when various armed conﬂicts were threatening the

stability of the Central American region, Oscar Arias submitted

a peace plan which led to the Esquipulas Peace Agreement

being signed between El Salvador, Guatemala, Nicaragua,

Hon

duras, and Panama; his contribution earned him the Nobel

Peace Prize in 1987.

e. At a time when various armed conﬂicts were threatening the

stability of the Central American region, Oscar Arias submitted

a peace plan that led to the Esquipulas Peace Agreement among

El Salvador, Guatemala, Nicaragua, Honduras, and Panama; his

contribution earned him the Nobel Peace Prize in 1987.

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Questions

174.

Studies over the past decade indicate people working at home or

outside the ofﬁce as tending to work longer hours, contrary to

employers’ initial fears.

a. indicate people working at home or outside the ofﬁce as tend-

ing to work longer hours, contrary to

b. indicate people who work at home or outside the ofﬁce as tend-

ing to work longer hours, in contradiction of

c. indicate that people who work at home or outside the ofﬁce

tend to work longer hours,

contrary to

d. have indicated longer hours of work by people who work at

home or outside the ofﬁce, contrary to

e. indicate that home-working people tend to work longer hours,

contrary to

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Questions

Answers

Set 5

93. a. The verb consume is correct in the plural form to agree with the

plural subject the most successful nations in the world. Choice b is

incorrect because it conjugates the verb as consumes, which is only

correct if the subject is singular. Choice c also incorrectly

conjugates the verb as consumes to agree with a singular subject,

and it changes the simple present verb tense are to the present

progressive are being, which is incorrect for a general statement

that uses the verb to be. Choice d changes the verb tense are to have

been, which changes the original idea and implies the most

successful nations have already been home to the world’s poorest

people for a certain amount of time. This information cannot be

assumed. Choice e is incorrect because the phrase not only is

consuming does not agree with the plural subject the most successful

nations in the world.

94. c. The past tense set maintains a parallel structure among all the

verbs in the sentence (ruled, curtailed, set) and makes choice c the

clearest sentence. Choice a is incorrect because setting is the

present progressive tense. The sentence already uses curtailed in

the simple past, so it is best to keep this verb in the simple past as

well. Remember, parallelism is preferred. Choice b is incorrect for

the same reason; having set is not the best verb tense to maintain

unity and a parallel structure among all the actions presented.

Choice d is incorrect because it represents the future tense; this

sentence refers to actions that already happened, so the future

tense is wrong. Choice e is incorrect because it is an independent

clause. An independent clause cannot be joined to another

independent clause with just a comma. This is comma splicing and

it is incorrect.

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Questions

95. d. Although public is a collective noun referring to many people, it

is singular and so the pronoun it must be used. Is, not are, is

correct because it refers to one of the most important questions, which

is singular. Choice a is incorrect because it uses they to refer to the

singular noun public. Choice b is incorrect because it uses the

plural verb are for the singular subject one of the most important

questions; it also uses the plural pronoun they to represent the

singular noun public. Choice c is incorrect because it also uses the

plural pronoun they to refer to public. Choice e is incorrect because

it uses are as the verb for the singular subject one of the most

important questions.

96. e. In order to make a logical comparison, two similar ideas must be

compared. In this sentence, the views of China are compared with

the views (those) of the United States. Choice a is incorrect because

it compares China’s views with the United States. A country’s views

cannot be logically compared with a country. Choice b is incorrect

because it uses the singular that to refer to the plural subject views.

Choice c is incorrect because it also uses the singular that to refer

to views. Choice d is incorrect because the ideas compared (the

views of China compared to the views from the United States) are not

parallel.

97. b. Choice b maintains a parallel structure by keeping all the verbs

in the gerund form; this makes for an easy and clear read. Choice a

is incorrect because the work of the scientists is not presented in a

parallel form: preserving is in the gerund form, their regeneration is a

noun, and ways to extract is also a noun. Choice c is incorrect

because the three aspects are not structured in a parallel form:

working is in the gerund form, but regenerate and extract are in their

inﬁnitive forms. Choice d is incorrect because it adds the adjective

diligent, which would be considered an altered meaning; this also is

incorrect because it modiﬁes the verb working and needs to be in

adverb form as diligently. Also, the possessive pronoun its to deﬁne

medicinal properties is incorrect because it is singular to refer to the

plural noun the world’s most threatened plant species. Choice e is

incorrect because it uses the comparative form more instead of the

most when describing the threatened plant species. The sentence

refers to many different plant species, so the superlative form the

most must be used.

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Questions

98. e. The apostrophe is correctly omitted from Jr. since the

placement of of before Martin already indicates possession. The

verbs insisted and had are correctly formed in the past tense. Choice

a is incorrect because of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s is redundant: It

has both of and the apostrophe to indicate possession. Of Martin

Luther King, Jr. or Martin Luther King, Jr.’s is correct, but not a

combination of the two forms. Also, in choice a, the verb tense had

had is incorrect because it implies that Martin Luther King, Jr. had

the makings of a great leader before the boycott and before his

contemporaries insisted about it, but not during (see Correct

Expression notes on the past perfect tense). This is illogical since

he had the makings of a great leader at the time of the boycott and

when his contemporaries insisted. Choice b is incorrect because it

uses the apostrophe in Jr.’s and because it combines both the past

progressive and simple present tense to describe two events that

happened in the past. Choice c is incorrect because it incorrectly

uses the apostrophe in Jr.’s. Choice d is incorrect because has is in

the simple present form. It must be in the simple past.

99. a. The information after the comma adequately expands on the

type of information; it is an appositive. Choice b is incorrect

because the prepositional phrase with information . . . has no clear

phrase or idea to attach to. Choice c would form two independent

clauses separated by a comma. This would be a comma splice,

which is incorrect. Choice d, without the comma, implies that the

newspapers and printing sites affect society. While this may be

true, it changes the original meaning. Choice e incorrectly

employs the present perfect verb tense for a general statement that

is better expressed in the simple present tense. It is incorrect

because that has affected needs to be closer to what it modiﬁes,

which is information. Placing it at the end of the sentence makes

the sentence unclear.

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Questions

100. d. The phrase recent ﬁndings suggests the present time. The correct

idiomatic expression is as . . . as to compare two ideas or things.

Choice a is incorrect because the verb was is in the past and deadly

must be followed by as to form the correct idiomatic expression.

Choice b is incorrect because the verb should be in the present

tense, not the past (there was). Choice c is incorrect because it uses

the present perfect form (there’s been), which sounds awkward when

referring to truth, a general statement that needs to be expressed

in the simple present form. Choice e is incorrect because it uses

as . . . than, not the correct idiomatic expression as . . . as to

compare two ideas or things.

101. b. Choice b correctly uses the idiomatic expression from . . . to to

describe the range of industries within the manufacturing sector.

Choice a is incorrect because it does not ﬁnish the idiomatic

expression from . . . to with to. Choice c is incorrect because it also

fails to ﬁnish the idiomatic expression with to; also, seems that it is

sounds awkward and is not as concise as seems to be. Choice d is

also incorrect because it uses seems that it is over seems to be, a better

option. Choice e is incorrect because it does not use the complete

expression from . . . to to describe the range of industries within the

manufacturing sector; instead, it incorrectly starts with from and

ﬁnishes with in addition to.

102. d. The dependent clause (as companies grow . . .) indicates the

sentence is in the present tense. The verbs in the main clause

should also use the present tense. Having mastered in choice a is an

awkward past participle, and become (the simple present) sounds

awkward. Choice b uses verbs in the past tense, which is incorrect

since the ﬁrst part of the sentence is in the present tense. Choice c

is incorrect because will be becoming is the future present

progressive. The sentence is in the present, not the future. Choice

e is incorrect because the present perfect progressive (have been

becoming) is awkward in this context that has already used the

simple present; the present progressive is preferred.

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Questions

103. e. In choice e, like is correctly followed by a noun to form a

parallel comparison between the rings of both ﬁsh and trees.

Choice a is incorrect because like is followed by a clause and the

comparison is not formed with two parallel clauses to make sense.

Choice b is incorrect because like is followed by a clause, not a

simple noun. Choice c is incorrect because as should be replaced

by like. Also, the main topic is ﬁsh in all the other sentences; in

choice c, trees seem to be the focus over ﬁsh. Choice d is incorrect

because the second clause after the comma is not formed in a

parallel fashion to agree with the ﬁrst clause (as trees have rings) and

form a correct comparison.

104. c. The information that killed off dinosaurs 65 million years ago is

essential to understanding and identifying the meteorite.

Therefore, the sentence must use that, not which, and omit the

comma. Choice a is incorrect because it uses a comma and which,

which are used when extra information is given that is not

necessary to understanding the sentence; that is not the case with

this sentence. Choice b is incorrect because it changes killed to the

past perfect had killed. The past perfect is used when one event

happens before another; in this example, the turtle survived the

meteorite and the dinosaurs died at the same time. The past

perfect cannot be used in this example. For that same reason,

choice d is also incorrect. Choice d also makes the mistake of

including the comma and using which instead of that. Choice e is

incorrect because the gerund killing should be changed into a that

clause, that killed.

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Questions

105. b. The ideas are all correctly structured in the gerund form to

provide a clear, comprehensible sentence. Choice a is incorrect

because the verb includes should be include to agree with the plural

subject three of the most encouraging ideas. Also, the ideas are not

structured in the same way; to detach should be detaching so the

three ideas are expressed in a parallel structure. Choice c is

incorrect because to restore is presented in the inﬁnitive form, not

the gerund form. It should be in the gerund form to agree with the

structure of the other ideas; also, by should be eliminated before

detaching. Choice d is incorrect because includes needs to be include

to agree with the plural subject three of the most encouraging ideas.

Choice e is incorrect because the second idea (using a traveling

service station that refuels them) is wordy and it is unclear what them

refers to; also, detaching working parts to attach them to new satellites

from old ones is wordy and could be phrased better. From old ones

should directly follow what it modiﬁes: working parts.

106. d. The ﬁrst part of the sentence (not subject to change) is a

modiﬁer. What it modiﬁes must be placed directly afterward so it

is clear to what thought to be either symbolic or accurate descriptions

refers. Choice d successfully does this with a clear, succinct clause.

Choice a is incorrect because it implies the ﬁrst part of the

sentence is describing archaeologists since archaeologists is the ﬁrst

word of the independent clause. This is incorrect and as a result,

the ﬁrst part of the sentence becomes a dangling modiﬁer without

any clear referent. The same mistake is made in choice b. Choice c

is incorrect because the complete sentence would also result in a

dangling modiﬁer; the independent clause (the answer) begins with

much time, thereby implying that much time was thought to be either

symbolic or accurate descriptions. This is illogical; much time cannot

begin the independent clause. Choice e is incorrect because it says

that cave paintings have debated archaeologists. This idea is illogical;

cave paintings cannot debate.

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Questions

107. c. Choice c presents the sentence in the correct conditional

sentence form. Choice a is incorrect because the if clause employs

the structure would not have intervened; this is incorrect as the would

have + past participle structure is only correct for the result clause.

Choice b is incorrect because it also uses the would not have

structure in the if clause (in this sentence, the if clause comes

second). Also, the past participle is missing the ﬁnal d to make it a

past participle (intervened) and not just the verb (intervene). Choice

d is incorrect because it changes the time reference of the entire

sentence. It implies that the economic crisis could still be avoided

if government didn’t intervene. This is illogical since the economic

crisis already happened and this choice changes the original

meaning. It does not represent the best choice. Choice e is

incorrect because the past participle intervene in the if clause is

missing the ﬁnal d (intervened).

108. e. Choice e eliminates any possibility of ambiguity regarding the

antecedents of the pronouns they and its. Choice a is incorrect

because they and their have ambiguous antecedents; either pronoun

could refer to Easter Islanders or statues. Choice b is incorrect for the

same reason; only the verb tense has been changed, which does not

change the underlying problem of ambiguous antecedents. Choice

c is incorrect because it is unclear what its refers to; though it

could refer to the island, the choice is wordy and not very clear.

Choice d is incorrect because are should be is, as which refers to the

singular idea that the island’s ancient, famous statues walked by

themselves.

109. b. Choice b correctly keeps release in the subjunctive form

(required because of demand + that), and his or her is used to

correctly refer to a presidential candidate. Choice a is incorrect

because their is incorrectly used to refer to a singular presidential

candidate. Choice c is incorrect because releases should be in the

subjunctive form release as required by demand + that. Also, have

been taken should be has been taken to agree with the singular

subject how much. Choice d is incorrect because their should be his

or her, and have been taken should be has been taken. Choice e is

incorrect because releases should be release.

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Questions

110. a. Choice a is correct because it keeps the comparisons parallel; the

sentence compares Democrats’ views to Republicans’ views. To

keep the comparison logical, Republicans’ must be possessive like

Democrats’. Choice b is incorrect because the comparison is not

parallel with Republican; it must be phrased in the same possessive

way as Democrats’. Choice c is incorrect because the superlative

form (the most revolutionary) is used when the comparative form

must be used; only two different groups are being compared.

Choice d also incorrectly uses the superlative form instead of the

comparative form; also, Republican’s is in singular possessive form

when it should be in plural possessive form with the apostrophe

after the s. Choice e is missing the apostrophe after Republicans to

make the comparison parallel with Democrats’.

111. e. Choice e correctly uses the number of (to indicate a speciﬁc

statistic) with the singular verb was and the idiom about the same as.

Choice a is incorrect because it uses the expression a number of

instead of the number of. The use of the expression a number of

(meaning some or many) in this sentence is illogical. Choice b is

incorrect because it also uses the expression a number of, which is

incorrect in this context. Also, the subject a number of unemployed

Americans requires a plural subject; in choice b, a singular subject is

incorrectly used. Choice c is incorrect because it uses the

expression about the same than; the correct expression is about the

same as. Choice d is incorrect because it uses the plural verb were

instead of was, and the incorrect expression about the same than

instead of about the same as.

112. a. Choice a uses the correct verbs to agree with the plural subjects

market forces and movements of a stock price. Choice b is incorrect

because the plural subjects require the verbs are and are, not is and

is. Choice c is incorrect because the second verb is should be are to

agree with market forces. Choice d is incorrect because the ﬁrst

verb is should be are to agree with movements of a stock price. Choice

e is incorrect because subjecting does not make sense in this

context.

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113. d. Choice d is grammatically correct because it uses the

subjunctive voice be established (required by the preceding clause

suggests that) and proper verb forms and sentence structure to avoid

any ambiguous pronoun references. The subjunctive voice is used

because this sentence is implying that a potential new standard

should be established by using the verb suggest. Choice a is incorrect

because they has no logical referent. Choice b is incorrect because

is established is wrong; the subjunctive voice is needed after suggests

that. Choice c is incorrect because to be established needs to change

to be established (without to), and they has no logical referent.

Choice e is incorrect because is established needs to change to be

established, and they has no logical pronoun referent.

114. b. Choice b correctly uses the conditional tenses were and had

required after the verb wish. Choice a is incorrect because was is

used instead of the correct were, and wishes is used instead of wish

to go after the modal may and to agree with feel. Choice c is

incorrect because was is used instead of were, and will has replaced

may, which is incorrect because it changes meaning. Choice d is

incorrect because may wish has been changed to wishes, and may still

feel has been changed to still feels; both changes alter meaning.

Also, choice d uses was instead of were. Choice e is incorrect

because has should be had.

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115. c. Choice c uses correct subject-verb agreement and appropriate

idiomatic expressions to form a grammatically correct sentence.

Choice a is incorrect because were should be was to agree with the

singular subject a system of underground tunnels; also, in the case a

national emergency is not a correct idiomatic expression. The

placement of the modiﬁer with a complex communication network

after were built on an impressive scale is confusing because it’s unclear

whether the building of the system has a complex communication

network or whether the system itself does. Choice b is incorrect

because were should be was to deﬁne a system . . . ; also, the clause

which has a complex communication network is incorrect. The which

must always refer to the noun immediately before it; in this case,

that would be scale when it needs to be a system of underground

tunnels. That entire clause needs to be reworded. Also, the

dependent clause leading to . . . could be worded better. Choice d is

incorrect because occurs needs to change to occur in the clause

should a national emergency occurs. Choice e is incorrect because were

needs to change to was, and lead needs to change to leads to agree

with the singular subject.

116. a. Choice a correctly utilizes the idiomatic expression neither . . .

nor with the appropriate subject-verb agreement. Choice b is

incorrect because argue should be argues to agree with the singular

noun a majority of society, and are should be is to agree with the

expression neither . . . nor. Choice c is incorrect because argue

should be argues; also, they has no clear referent since a majority of

society is singular. Choice d is incorrect because not . . . or is not a

correct idiomatic expression; also, argue should be argues. Choice e

is incorrect because not . . . nor is not a correct idiomatic

expression. The correct expression is neither . . . nor.

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117. d. Choice d represents the most logical, grammatically correct

sentence. Choice a is incorrect because the clause rather than

waiting to die should modify what directly follows it. In this case, it

is Oregon’s right-to-die law, which is illogical. Choice b makes the

same mistake. Choice a is also incorrect because the clause which

have less than six months to live is set off by commas as a nonessential

clause (also called a nonrestrictive clause). This is incorrect

because the information between the commas is essential to

describing what kind of mentally stable people. The commas imply

that mentally stable people have access to medication to accelerate

their demise, and the fact that they have less than six months to

live is extra information. This is incorrect since that information is

essential to the deﬁnition and meaning of the sentence. Choice c is

incorrect because rather than waiting to die is immediately followed

by the demise, not mentally stable people. It modiﬁes mentally stable

people, so mentally stable people must follow the comma. Also, who

permits them access to medication should be worded as that permits

them access to medication since it refers to the law (a concept, not a

person). Choice e is incorrect because it also has the demise as the

subject, instead of mentally stable people, following the clause rather

than waiting to die. In addition, the sentence is not as clear or

succinct as choice d.

118. e. Choice e presents the three ideas in a parallel verb form that

results in a clear, grammatically correct sentence. Choice a is

incorrect because the kidnapping of children does not maintain the

same gerund verb form as the other factors presented; using the in

front of kidnapping changes its structure and it loses its parallelism

with the rest of the sentence. Also, for taking as is incorrect to express

purpose; the inﬁnitive form (to take as) must be used in this context.

Choice b is incorrect because the ﬁrst verb is in the gerund form and

the second and third verbs are in the inﬁnitive form. This does not

maintain a parallel structure among all elements. Choice c is

incorrect because the ﬁrst element (his plundering of villages) is

presented as a noun, and the rest are presented as simple gerunds.

Once again, a parallel structure among all the elements is not

achieved. Choice d is incorrect for the same lack of parallel structure;

the ﬁrst element is presented in the past tense (he plundered) and the

other two elements are presented in the gerund form. Consistency

among the verbs is essential to achieve parallelism.

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119. c. Choice c correctly uses the expression as . . . as and

appropriately compares the excitement of the competition between

the two parties with to inserted after the second as. Choice a is

incorrect because it fails to insert to after the second as to form a

grammatically correct comparison. Choice b is incorrect because the

correct expression as . . . as is inappropriately changed to as . . . than

and the to is also missing to form a correct comparison. Choice d is

incorrect because the second as has been changed to than. Choice e

is incorrect because then is used instead of as.

120. d. Choice d is a grammatically correct sentence that corrects all

pronoun and adverb errors. Choice a is incorrect because full veiled

should be fully veiled since veiled is an adjective and fully acts as an

adverb; also, who is incorrect to refer to Western opposition; that is

the correct word. Choice b is incorrect because full should be fully,

her should be their (twice in the sentence) to agree with the plural

subject women, and who should be that in reference to Western

opposition. Choice c is incorrect because the adjective heavy

should be heavily as it’s an adverb that describes the adjective

oppressed. Choice e is incorrect because her should be their in two

instances to agree with the plural subject women.

121. b. Choice b is the best grammatically correct sentence. Choice a is

incorrect because well should be good; good describes athletic abilities,

so it is an adjective. Also, the second clause of the sentence is

missing a ﬁnal does at the end to appropriately compare DNA-based

tests to a standard performance test. Choice c is incorrect because

well must be good, and much beyond a standard performance test

should read much beyond what a standard performance test does to

appropriately compare the two types of tests. Choice d is incorrect

because well needs to be good. Choice e is incorrect because even

though the comparison is inverted in the second part of the

sentence and still maintains the original meaning, a do is missing at

the very end to appropriately compare the two types of tests.

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122. e. Choice e ﬁxes the problem of the dangling modiﬁer resigned to

accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials by starting the

independent clause with the athlete. Choice a is incorrect because

there is no subject in the sentence to which the modiﬁer resigned to

accept his disqualiﬁcation from the Olympic trials can attach. Choice b

is incorrect for the same reason, despite having inverted the clauses

in the sentence. Choice c is incorrect because it is missing both a

subject and a verb. Choice d is incorrect because it suggests that

silence resigned to accept his disqualiﬁcations; this is illogical. A

reasonable noun needs to be inserted.

123. e. Choice e is the correct option. Choice a is incorrect because the

preposition with is unnecessary and each is singular, so it needs to

be followed by its, not their. Choice b is incorrect because each

products is illogical; each is singular so it cannot be followed by a

plural noun. The same logic can be applied to choice c. It would

also need an article before the singular product. Choice d is

incorrect because with and as are unnecessary. The resulting

expression is not idiomatic.

124. a. Choice a is grammatically correct with no ambiguous pronoun

references. Choice b is incorrect because considered as is not a

correct idiomatic expression. The as is incorrect. Also, it is unclear

whether the referent of his in his works refers to Joseph C. Hart or

William Shakespeare. Choice c is incorrect because they has no

logical referent, and considered as is not an idiomatic expression.

Explicit must be explicitly to deﬁne the verb question, and his

authorship of Shakespeare’s works is misleading to imply Hart’s

authorship of Shakespeare’s works, which is illogical. Choice d is

incorrect because considered to be is unidiomatic, and the greater

playwrights must be changed to the greatest playwrights since more

than two playwrights are being compared. The him in choice d is

also ambiguous, as it could possibly refer to Shakespeare or Joseph

C. Hart. Choice e

is incorrect because regarded to be is not a correct

idiomatic expression, and it is unclear exactly to whom him refers

at the end of the sentence.

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125. c. Choice c is a grammatically correct and concise sentence that

appropriately uses the expression x and y, as well as z. Choice a is

incorrect because the preposition on is not appropriate; it could be

substituted by in or when. Also, like cannot be given to list

examples; the correct expression is such as. Choice b is incorrect

because the expression x and y and z is not idiomatic. Also, like

needs to be substituted by such as. Choice d is incorrect because

the expression x, y, as well as z is not idiomatic; x and y require and

between them. Choice e is incorrect because the verb consider

should be considers to match its singular subject the Happy Planet

Index.

126. b. Choice b conjugates all the verbs in the correct tense and uses

more quickly to describe the verb control. Choice a is incorrect

because exercised is in the past tense, which does not agree with the

ﬁrst verb plans in the simple present tense, and the pronouns they

and their are used, despite the singular subject a diabetic. Quicker

(comparative adjective) is also incorrect because it deﬁnes the verb

control, which requires an adverb (more quickly). Do must be omitted

from the comparison between two types of diabetics. Choice c is

incorrect because the pronoun they is used for a singular subject,

quicker is used instead of more quickly, and does needs to be omitted

from the comparison. Choice d is incorrect because exercised, will

have regained, and stuck must be in the present tense. Choice e is

incorrect because does must be omitted from the comparison.

127. a. Choice a correctly uses the semicolon to join two independent

clauses that have similar meanings. Choice b is incorrect because

two independent clauses (the ﬁrst ending with records, the second

beginning with as an example) are joined by a comma. This is

incorrect and constitutes a comma splice. Choice c is incorrect

because like must be used to compare two nouns (which does not

happen in this sentence). Choice d is incorrect because the clause

starting with which does not represent an independent clause.

Therefore, a semicolon cannot be used to separate the ﬁrst clause

from the second. Also, which technically refers to records, which is

illogical. In addition, the wording is awkward. Choice e is

incorrect because such as to be helping is awkward and wordy. It

would sound more idiomatic if to be were omitted.

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128. d. Choice d uses the correct verb forms to agree with its subjects.

Choice a is incorrect because as much as must be as many as to

agree with the countable noun pieces of ﬂoating plastic, is must be are

to agree with the plural subject pieces of ﬂoating plastic, and makes up

must be make up to agree with the plural subject. Choice b is

incorrect because as much as must change to as many as, is must

change to are to agree with pieces of ﬂoating plastic, and the present

perfect tense have made up must change to the simple present tense

to agree with the rest of the sentence. Choice c is incorrect

because indicate must change to indicates, is must change to are, and

is making up must be changed to the simple present make up since

this is a general statement. Choice e is incorrect because indicate

must change to indicates and as many of is not a correct idiomatic

expression. It must be changed to as many as.

129. c. Choice c is correct because both clauses the frequency of employee

turnover and servers’ treatment of their customers are parallel as

nouns. Choice a does not offer a parallel clause to the ﬁrst clause

in the sentence, nor is the singular verb is correct. It should be are

to agree with the compound subject. Choice b is incorrect because

it is a clause, not a noun that is parallel to the frequency of employee

turnover. Choice d is incorrect because is must be are to agree with

the compound subject. Choice e, though phrased as a noun in a

fashion parallel to the frequency of employee turnover, does not make

sense when inserted into the sentence as customers’ reactions to their

servers. This changes the original meaning.

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130. e. Choice e uses the correct idiomatic expression rivalry between x

and y and the correct positive conditional verb forms to form a

logical, grammatically correct sentence. Choice a is incorrect

because of must be between to form the idiomatic expression rivalry

between x and y, and hadn’t must be had to make logical sense.

Coca-Cola didn’t buy Pepsi. If it had bought it, the rivalry may never

have been. Choice b makes the same mistake using of instead of

between, and it also incorrectly uses hadn’t seized and hadn’t bought

when both instances must be positive to make logical sense.

Choice c is incorrect because it too uses hadn’t instead of had.

Choice d is incorrect because the result clause is not conjugated

correctly and the modal of possibility may has been changed to a

more concrete would: Would never be must be changed to would

never have been, and in order to preserve the original implied

possibility, would must be changed to may.

131. b. Choice b uses correct verb tense and subject-verb agreement to

convey a clear, sound sentence. Choice a is incorrect because had

voted needs to be voted. The past perfect would only be used if

something else in the sentence happened afterward (see

Explanation of past perfect tense in Instructional Text). Choice c is

incorrect because had voted must be voted, and the trying of is not

idiomatic; the should be eliminated to make the sentence read

more naturally in English. Choice d is incorrect because in favor of

+ inﬁnitive is not an idiomatic expression; to repeal needs to be

epealing in order for the expression to be correct. Choice e is

incorrect because the for + gerund form (for repealing) needs to

change to the inﬁnitive form (to repeal) in order to express purpose.

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132.

d. Choice d successfully makes the two clauses parallel for an

effective sentence. Choice a is incorrect because the ideas are not

parallel: the perils of capitalism is expressed as a noun phrase, and

that the democracy is corrupted is expressed as a that clause with a

subject and verb. Choice b is incorrect because that is missing after

agree. It also changes the meaning by omitting any mention of

criticism. Choice c is incorrect because the notion of possibility

(originally conveyed with may) is missing, which changes the

meaning, and the expression to the extent of the perils is awkward.

Choice e is incorrect because the correct idiomatic expression is

however much, not however many to describe the extent of the

United States citizens’ criticism (an uncountable noun).

133. c. Choice c correctly uses it to agree with the singular subject the

private lending sector. Also, adding the phrase to be made helps clarify

the sentence meaning. Choice a is incorrect because it is must be

they are to agree with the plural subject payments. Choice b is

incorrect because the active voice is preferred over the passive

voice; the passive voice in this sentence makes it unclear who does

not expect payments to be made. Also, will not be expected to be paid

suggests some control over the expectations, which is awkward and

changes meaning. Choice d is incorrect because the passive voice is

less clear, and the expression payments . . . to be paid is redundant.

The future tense are going to be is awkward in this choice as well.

Choice e is incorrect because they must be it to agree with the

singular subject the private lending sector, and it is must be they are to

agree with the plural subject payments.

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Set 6

134. c. Starting the sentence with Accused of is the most concise and

effective way to present the information. Choice a is not the best

answer because having been at the beginning of the sentence is not

necessary and is best omitted. Choice b is incorrect because being

accused is not the most concise way to express the idea. The being is

confusing and is best omitted. Also, combining huge areas of the

Ecuadorian Amazon to read huge Ecuadorian Amazon areas is unclear.

The phrase is best left as it originally appears with the of. Choice d

is incorrect for the same unclear huge Ecuadorian Amazon areas and

because having been at the beginning of the sentence is unneces

sary. Choice e

is too wordy; due to being

at the beginning of the

sentence is incorrect.

135. a. This choice provides the clearest sentence with the most

logically placed modiﬁers. Choice b is incorrect because the

modiﬁer with construction slated to begin in 2014 is placed after

Disneyland Paris; this placement is confusing because it implies the

construction of Disneyland Paris is slated to begin in 2014. Choice

c is incorrect because the placement of the modiﬁers results in a

confusing sentence. With construction slated to begin in 2014 provided

enough funds are raised should be placed closer to France’s very own

theme park devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte, not directly after the

mention of Disneyland Paris. It is unclear whether Disneyland

Paris or France’s theme park devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte is

slated to begin construction in 2014. Choice d is not the best

option presented; it has many commas that cut off the ﬂow and

cohesion of the sentence. Choice e is incorrect due to syntax. The

placement of devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte at the end of the

sentence after Disneyland Paris makes it seem as though Disneyland

Paris is devoted to Napoleon Bonaparte. This is incorrect.

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136. d. The phrase yellow saddle goatﬁsh in the Red Sea is best left as is

without collapsing it into a noun-adjective phrase (Red Sea yellow

saddle goatﬁsh). Choice d effectively eliminates the comma by

combining the appositive (groups with designated members) with the

rest of the sentence. Choice a is incorrect because have the

capability to hunt in groups is understandable, but it is not the most

effective way to express the goatﬁsh’s abilities. Choice b better

phrases this part of the sentence with are capable of hunting in

groups. However, choice b describes the goatﬁsh as Red Sea yellow

saddle goatﬁsh. This is incorrect because it is not known whether

the yellow saddle goatﬁsh are exclusively from the Red Sea; they

are best left with the location placed afterward following in.

Choice c is incorrect for the same noun-adjective error (Red Sea

yellow saddle goatﬁsh) and because have the capability to hunt in groups

is not the most effective wording. It also uses the phrase designated

chosen members, which is redundant. Choice e makes the same

mistake with the Red Sea yellow saddle goatﬁsh combination and by

placing designated and chosen next to each other. Furthermore,

possess the capability to hunt in groups is wordy.

137. b. This sentence effectively and concisely describes the idea with a

that clause that changes the idea into an active verb. Choice a,

while understandable, is wordier because it uses more nouns than

active verbs. Choice c, while one of the shortest options presented,

incorrectly uses like where it should use such as. Choice d, like

choice a, uses more nouns than action verbs; furthermore, the verb

fascinates at the end of the sentence is awkward as it doesn’t specify

who is fascinated. The idea seems to be cut off. Choice e, while it

correctly changes the structure of the sentence to include a that

clause, it incorrectly uses like instead of such as.

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138.

a. This sentence effectively uses the that clause and active verbs.

Choice b is incorrect because the belief about whales being terrestrial

mammals is wordy and confusing. Which is incorrect and should be

replaced by that; also, was supported is unclear because the evidence

still supports the belief; therefore, was supported needs to be in the

present tense as is supported. Choice c avoids the that clause, which

leads to excessive nouns and not enough action verbs.

Furthermore, have been supported is incorrectly structured in the

plural tense and does not agree with the singular subject the belief.

It should read has been supported. Choice d, while one of the best

options presented, fails in comparison to choice a because made the

transition is not as succinct as transitioned. Choice e is awkwardly

structured and does not represent the best sentence. The belief of

whales as once being terrestrial mammals can be phrased much better

as the belief that whales were once terrestrial mammals. Also, is must

change to are to agree with the plural subject whale fossils.

139. d. Choice d is the most concise sentence that doesn’t repeat any

information. Choice a is extremely wordy and redundant; the high

numbers of Christians on the scale is overemphasized with the

words overpowered, overrepresent, and high. Choice b, while less

wordy than choice a, is still redundant with overrepresent and high;

also, the original phrase a world scale has been changed to the world

scale. This change in article from a to the changes meaning and

implies there is only one scale. Choice c changes the wording to

the passive voice, a style that is generally not preferred on this test.

It is redundant with overrepresented and elevated. Like choice b, it

also changes the article a before world scale to the to imply there is

only one supposed world scale. This cannot be assumed from the

information given. Choice e is in the passive voice; generally

speaking, the active voice is preferred on this test. It also leaves out

the information on a world scale.

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140. a. Choice a is the best sentence because it is in the active voice

(done using the that clause) and it is clear. Choice b is redundant

with the phrase will be outearning their husbands with greater wages.

With greater wages is superﬂuous since the verb outearn already

conveys this information. Also, within the next generation is wordier

than within a generation. Choice c is unclear due to the placement

of within a generation directly after new workforce trends. This

placement implies within a generation deﬁnes new workforce trends,

not when wives will outearn their husbands. The sentence is

awkward and confusing as it also seems to imply that husbands will

outearn their working wives; this is not the same idea expressed in

the original sentence. Choice d is worded in the passive voice,

which results in an awkward and wordier sentence that does not

represent the best option. Choice e is incorrect because it uses

more noun clauses instead of active verbs.

141. c. That needs to be included after revealed in this sentence. Choice

c also maintains the second part of the sentence (because

communities abandon . . .) in the active voice, which makes for the

clearest, most succinct sentence. Choice a is incorrect because that

is omitted after the reporting verb revealed, and the noun phrase

because of communities abandoning is not as clear or efﬁcient as the

active verb choice because communities abandon in choice c. Choice b

is incorrect because it uses due to; because of would be the correct

phrase, but the sentence can be worded even better as the

explanation for choice a suggests. Choice d is missing that at the

beginning of its answer. Choice e is incorrect because the article

does not reveal the death of one language every 14 days. Such a

sentence would imply that the article spanned various 14-day

periods to reveal the death of a different language. This choice

greatly changes the information presented in the original sentence.

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142. e. Choice e correctly uses the that clause followed by are since that

refers to many analyzers. Choice a is incorrect because is should be

are to agree with the plural many analyzers. Effort + inﬁnitive (effort

to subject) is preferred over effort + of + gerund (effort of subjecting).

Choice b is incorrect because is should be the plural are after

which to agree with many analyzers. Also, the entire phrase does

not ﬂow well with the remaining part of the sentence to statewide

scrutiny and investigation; it implies that the gases are emitting to

statewide scrutiny, which does not make sense. Choice c is

incorrect for the same nonsensical reason as choice b; it implies

that the efforts are to subject how the gases are emitting to

scrutiny, which does not make sense. Choice d is incorrect because

effort in the long term is best phrased as long-term effort; also, the

two relative clauses beginning with that right after each other

result in a confusing and wordy sentence.

143. b. This sentence is logical. Findings refers back to the observations

of the scientists, and the icebergs are best described as gigantic

icebergs in Antarctica, not gigantic Antarctica icebergs. Choice a is

incorrect because it names the icebergs as Antarctica icebergs, and

because which, in this context, refers to Antarctica icebergs (since

which must always refer to the noun immediately before it). This is

incorrect because the second clause refers to large cracks observed,

not the icebergs themselves as the structure of choice a suggests.

Choice c is incorrect because it is unclear what the phrase consistent

with the predictions of global warming refers to. Choice d is incorrect

because where cannot logically refer to Antarctica icebergs. Choice e

is incorrect because the icebergs are named Antarctica icebergs

versus the correct icebergs in Antarctica. Remember that the

shortest idea isn’t always the best!

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144. d. Choice d correctly utilizes the transition word although at the

beginning of its sentence to introduce a contrasting idea. Choice a

is incorrect because it suggests the wrong transition word (however

is illogical at the beginning) and an additional transition word

regardless, which is incorrect. It also does not deﬁne the referent of

enough. Enough stands alone in the sentence and its referent is

unclear. Choice b is incorrect because the wording having approved

installing cobblestones sounds awkward. Although it is shorter than

other choices, the repeated gerund form sounds awkward. In

addition, choice b offers a superﬂuous transition word regardless

after the comma. Having two transition words for one sentence is

unnecessary. Choice c correctly uses but after the comma, but

there is no referent for enough and the wording cobblestone

installation bearing the names of Nazi victims implies the installation

bears the names of the victims, not the cobblestones. Choice e

commits the same mistake with the wording cobblestone

installation. . . .

145. d. Choice d effectively presents the idea in the clearest way with

the fewest words. Choice a is incorrect because it is wordy and the

phrase if there is a lacking concrete business plan is awkward; action

verbs are preferred over nouns. Choice b is incorrect because the

expression x will happen unless y happens ﬁrst calls for the present

tense after unless; in this choice, the future tense is employed.

Choice c is incorrect because the clause is wordy and awkward.

Choice e is incorrect because it does not represent the clearest

option.

146. e. Choice e represents the most concise and clearest sentence of all

the options presented. Choice a is incorrect because has the ability

to grow can be phrased with fewer words and due to needs to be

replaced by because of. Choice b is incorrect because is able of

growing is not a correct expression (is able needs to be followed by

an inﬁnitive), and caused by is inappropriate in the sentence. Choice

c is incorrect because because needs to be followed by a clause with

a verb, not just a noun (the thin air . . .) as the choice suggests.

Choice d is incorrect because due to needs to be replaced by

because of.

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147. c. Choice c makes for a clear and concise sentence that represents

the best option. Choice a is incorrect because the language is

redundant (build its increasing) and the market of international energy

can be reworded to be more concise. Choice b is incorrect because

Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry organization cannot be combined

without making the idea unclear; the phrase is best left as the

organization of Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry. Choice d is incorrect

because the phrasing Mexico’s hydrocarbon industry organization is

incorrect, and it is redundant to use both growth and surging.

Choice e is incorrect because it is also redundant (increase its

surging competitiveness).

148. a. This sentence is clear and concise. Choice b is incorrect because

decision from the mountain climber is improperly worded; from

should be of. Also, that led to him abandoning his friend, while

comprehensible, is a bit wordy. Choice c is incorrect due to its

wordiness. Of abandoning his friend is better phrased to abandon his

friend, and the adjective phrase would be life-changing for is more

concise as a verb phrase would change the lives of. Choice d is not

the best choice because of abandoning his friend is better worded as

to abandon his friend. Choice e is not the best choice because the

phrase on the slope is placed after to ﬁnd help, which implies that the

mountain climber went to ﬁnd help on the slope and did not

abandon his friend there. This placement changes the idea

presented in the original sentence.

149. b. The sentence is concise and clear without any redundant

phrases. Choice a is incorrect because internally displaced people

within their own countries is redundant. Internally displaced already

implies they are displaced within their own countries. Choice c is

incorrect because increased to an ampliﬁed 27.5 million people is

redundant; ampliﬁed is superﬂuous in the sentence. Choice d,

while grammatically correct, changes the expression internally

displaced people to a wordier displaced people within their own countries.

Therefore, it is not the best option. Choice e is incorrect because

the correct adjective is displaced, not displayed.

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150. c. Choice c correctly compares the Washington Monument to the

San Jacinto Memorial Monument with the correct contrast word

although followed by a dependent clause. Choice a is incorrect

because the Washington Monument is compared to the structure of

the San Jacinto Memorial Monument; this is not an equal

comparison. Either the two monuments are compared, or the

structures of the two monuments are compared, but not one of

each. Choice b is incorrect because it also wrongly compares the

Washington Monument to the San Jacinto Memorial Monument’s

structure, an unequal comparison. Choice d is incorrect for the

same unequal comparison. Choice e is incorrect because the wrong

transition word (in addition to) is used, when in fact a contrasting

transition word should be used.

151. d. Choice d represents the clearest and most concise sentence.

Choice a is not the best sentence because it uses noun clauses (are

evidence) and the passive voice (users are allowed) over active verbs

(like proving and allow users in choice d). The sentence is

comprehensible, but it is wordier and more passive than choice d.

Choice b is incorrect due to its wordiness in the last clause after

the second comma (are evidence of far-fetched Star Trek ideas being a

modern reality); furthermore, choice b changes the meaning from

have become to being a modern reality. This change in verb from

become to being changes the meaning and progression of

transformation implied in the initial sentence. Choice c is

incorrect because it is in the passive voice, which makes the

sentence wordier and not as clear. Choice e is incorrect because it

also changes have become a reality to being a reality, which is a

change in meaning. Also, the phrase as proof of far-fetched Star Trek

ideas being a reality could be more succinctly worded.

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152. a. Choice a represents the best sentence for its succinctness and

clarity. Choice b is incorrect because homes cannot be damaged

and destroyed at the same time; it is either one or the other. Choice

c is incorrect because considered as is incorrect. Choice d is

incorrect because damaged and destroyed needs to be damaged or

destroyed; also, the word choice thanks to is inappropriate in this

context; thanks to is typically used for a positive situation, not one

of suffering and destruction. Choice e is incorrect because

approximately has been changed to exactly; this change in word

choice is inappropriate because it changes the meaning.

153. c. In this choice, older automobiles are clearly contrasted with newer

automobiles, and to meet is parallel with remain (the to is implied).

Choice a is incorrect because older automobiles cannot be contrasted

with carmakers; also, remaining is not structured in the inﬁnitive

form (remain) to agree with to meet. Choice b is incorrect because

automobiles cannot be contrasted with aluminum. Choice d is

incorrect because remaining is best phrased in the inﬁnitive form to

be parallel with to meet. Choice e is incorrect because older

automobiles cannot be contrasted with new fuel efﬁciency standards.

154. b. Choice b is a grammatically correct sentence that uses accurate

idiomatic expressions without being redundant. Choice a is

incorrect because a rate is high, not fast, and it is redundant to have

annual and per year in a sentence to describe the same thing.

Choice c is incorrect because fast should be replaced by high, and

in addition is not the correct word to introduce a contrasting idea.

Choice d is incorrect because a quick rate is not a good phrase

choice, and moreover is not the correct word to introduce a

contrasting idea. Choice e is incorrect because annual rate per year

is redundant.

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155. e. Choice e is correct because it uses the correct expression native

to to describe the origin of a species and it correctly uses because of.

Choice a is incorrect because native of should be replaced by native

to. Choice b is incorrect because native of needs to be replaced by

native to, and a Devil Facial Tumor Disease cancer is best phrased as a

cancer called Devil Facial Tumor Disease. Choice c is incorrect

because native of needs to be replaced by native to, and due to needs

to be replaced by because of. Choice d is incorrect because due to

should be because of, and a Devil Facial Tumor Disease cancer is best

worded as a cancer called Devil Facial Tumor Disease.

156. d. Choice d is the most effective, succinct sentence. Choice a is

incorrect because the ﬁrst dependent clause before the comma is a

dangling modiﬁer with no logical referent. It implies that

microﬁnance views their money as a way to alleviate poverty, which is

illogical. Also, rather than would be preferred in this sentence

because rather than implies preference, whereas instead of is more

of a replacement, not a preference. Choice b is incorrect because

the ﬁrst clause continues to be a dangling modiﬁer with no logical

referent, and now currently is redundant and wordy. Also, rather

than is a better option in this sentence. Choice c is incorrect

because now . . . seeing . . . in today’s world is redundant; in today’s

world is best omitted from the sentence since the time frame of the

present is already conveyed. Also, the sentence would be more

effective if both clauses utilized the same verb tense. Choice e is

incorrect because view must be viewing if it is to follow instead of.

Also, now . . . in today’s world is redundant.

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157. d. Choice d represents the most concise and effective sentence.

Choice a is incorrect because have differences is better worded as

differ, and for maintaining, when it describes a purpose, needs to be

expressed in the inﬁnitive form (to maintain). Choice b is incorrect

because have differing opinions as to is wordy and awkward, and for

maintaining needs to be in the inﬁnitive form (to maintain) since it

describes purpose. Choice c is incorrect because the expression

create silk with their feet is misleading and can imply something

different from the original idea of making silk come out of their feet or

emit silk from their feet; the expression is also wordier than emit silk

from their feet as suggested by choice d. Choice e is incorrect

because disagree over the abilities of is wordy, and for maintaining

needs to be in the inﬁnitive form.

158. e. Choice e is the best option because it is succinct and clear.

Choice a is incorrect because it is wordy and awkward: mandated

the right to have their leases honored for tenants is comprehensible,

but wordy and awkward. Choice b is incorrect because it is very

wordy; also, the use of the passive voice makes the message

awkward and changes the focus. Choice c is incorrect because the

subjunctive form (made mandatory that tenants have) is preferred

over the wordier inﬁnitive form (made mandatory for tenants to

have). Choice e successfully uses the subjunctive form. Choice d is

incorrect because it is redundant; in the phrase made mandatory

that existing tenant leases have to be honored, both made mandatory

and have to be honored convey obligation. Have to is superﬂuous in

the sentence. Also, made mandatory is better expressed as a single

verb mandated.

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159.

c. Choice c represents the most succinct option. Choice a is

redundant because it includes both upcoming and approaching.

Upcoming already indicates the immediacy of the lunch. Choice b is

incorrect because being, approaching, and in a hastily manner are

superﬂuous: being can easily be omitted, approaching is redundant

after upcoming, and in a hastily manner can be reworded with hastily

before the verb phoned for a more concise sentence. Choice d is

incorrect because with regards to is incorrect; the correct expression

is with regard to or regarding. Also, the second phrase must not be

in the passive voice with the committee members beginning it as this

implies that the committee members are enthusiastic about the upcoming

reception lunch, not Mrs. Brown, as the original sentence indicates.

Mrs. Brown is not even mentioned in choice d, so this choice must

be eliminated as a possible answer. Choice e is incorrect because in

a rushed effort is redundant; hastily already conveys the hurriedness

of Mrs. Brown.

160. b. Choice b is a grammatically correct, clear sentence. Choice a is

incorrect because it is redundant: the phrase studied and researched

is unnecessary since studied and researched convey the same idea; the

same is true with rose by an increase of. Choice c is incorrect because

the growth of the ocean level went up is redundant; both went up and

growth indicate an upward movement. Also, parallel structure is

preferred on the GMAT, so the verb discovering would best be

expressed as discovered to mirror the other verb studied. The same

can be said for choice d; thereby discovering is better phrased as and

thereby discovered to maintain parallel structure. Also, rise and

increased are redundant since they both express an upward

movement; only one of those words is needed. Choice e is

incorrect because studied and researched together are redundant,

and more before feet changes the original meaning and implies the

ocean level had already risen. Also, the ﬁrst clause samples of coral

were studied and researched by scientists is in the passive voice, which

is generally less preferred than the active voice.

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161. c. Choice c correctly conveys the same idea as the original

sentence, yet it eliminates any redundancy and wordiness. Choice a

is incorrect because it is redundant. Both it is possible and may

convey possibility so may needs to be eliminated and replaced by

will. In choice b, today’s wealthiest nations’ babies is awkward; the

phrase is best left with the babies placed before the rest of the

expression. Choice d is incorrect because if the answer is plugged

into the rest of the sentence, it reads it is possible with greater chances

increasing; half of the sentence needs to be read before the reader

even knows what is being discussed. This results in an unclear

sentence. Also, the wrong pronouns he or she are used to refer to

the plural subject more than half of the babies. The sentence is also

wordy. In addition, the use of the modal might results in a

repetitive sentence, since both it is possible and might imply

possibility. Choice e is incorrect because the phrase today’s

wealthiest nations’ babies is awkward and best left with babies

beginning the expression to avoid confusion. Also, may must

change to will since possibility is already conveyed with it is possible.

162. a. Choice a is the most succinct and effective sentence. Choice b is

incorrect because two of the ideas (rescuing and capturing) have

been changed into the gerund form, which causes the sentence to

lose its ﬂow and parallel structure. Furthermore, a renewed sense of

conﬁdence is wordier than renewed conﬁdence without adding any

more substance. Although all the results are in the same part of

speech in choice c, the gerund form (sweeping rescuing, arresting,

capturing, feelings) does not read as well or succinctly as the noun

form (rescues, arrests, captures, conﬁdence); the sentence is wordier

and less effective. Choice d does use the more effective noun form

for its list, but the clause who are progressive in their ideals is wordier

than choice a’s adjective left-wing. Choice e is incorrect because

idealistically progressive is not as succinct as left-wing, and renovated

has been used instead of renewed; the latter substitution changes

meaning and renders the choice incorrect.

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163. b. Choice b is the most effective and concise sentence. Choice a is

incorrect because should is an incorrect modal to describe the

ruling of a judge; should is used to describe a moral obligation, not

a judge’s ruling. Also, choice a is redundant with its wording of in

total and a sum of; both expressions convey the same meaning. The

rest of the sentence, though grammatically correct, involves two

different that clauses that result in a wordy, drawn-out sentence.

Choice c is not the best option because it is wordier without

offering any additional information. Notice the difference of with

the money having come from the sale of personal and business assets,

which were seized after an undercover investigation versus which was

seized in personal and business assets following an undercover

investigation in choice b. Choice b is much more succinct. Also,

choice c adds additional information of the state paying out the

money that is not present in the original sentence. This

information cannot be concluded from what is given in the original

sentence. Therefore, it inappropriately alters the meaning. Choice

d is incorrect because the modal ought to is inappropriate for a

judge’s ruling. Ought to suggests a moral obligation. Also, which

were from selling is awkward, and the verb were does not agree with

the singular subject a total of $6.2 million. Choice e is incorrect

because, like choice c, it suggests that the judge ruled that the state

must pay out the money; this information constitutes an

assumption, not a fact, and it is therefore inappropriate. It also

places the direct object a total of $6.2 million after the indirect

object to the 613 victims; the resulting sentence is awkward and

the direct and indirect objects are best reversed to achieve the

most clarity.

164. d. Choice d correctly uses the that clause after argue with an

effective, concise structure and word choice. Choice a is incorrect

because that is missing after argue; also, diminish the value is not as

succinct as devalue. Choice b is incorrect because the passive

structure makes the sentence wordier without adding any

additional information, and or is used instead of and, which

changes the meaning. Choice c changes the meaning from abuse

intellectual property rights to intellectually abuse property rights. Choice

e is incorrect because intellectually now functions as an adverb

instead of an adjective and or is used instead of and, both of which

change the meaning of the clause.

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165.

a. Choice a is a clear, grammatically correct sentence. Choice b is

not the best choice because it is in the passive voice for the ﬁrst

part (on whether compromised health will be suffered among gamers in

the long term) and in the active voice for the second (what impact

society would feel). This creates confusion and makes the sentence

not as clear. Choice c is not the best choice because if . . . or not is

redundant; whether is best (without or not). Choice d is incorrect

because the wording alters the meaning from the original sentence:

whether the overall health of gamers will suffer in the long term is more

serious than whether gamers will become not as healthy. And is

changed to or in the sentence, which changes the meaning. Also,

the modal would has been changed to will (the impact their

compromised health will have on society), which changes the meaning.

Choice e is incorrect because the wording once again changes the

meaning. Whether fewer gamers will be healthy is quite different

from whether the overall health of gamers will suffer in the long term.

Also, and has been changed to or, and the ﬁnal clause or the impact

their health would have on society if they were is illogical. It would

make more sense if were changed to weren’t.

166. e. Choice e is correct because it correctly chooses more than before

twice the national average. More than is used when a quantity is

involved. Furthermore, it represents the most concise and effective

sentence. Choice a is incorrect because greater than must not be

used before twice the national average to describe the rising of

temperatures. Greater than can be used to compare numbers, but

not the rising of the numbers/temperatures. Choice b, in keeping

with, although a correct expression, is not as preferred stylistically

as according to. The sentence would also be more clear if and were

placed after years and before released. Choice c is incorrect because

in accordance with is inappropriate in this sentence. In accordance

with is correctly used with rules, conventions, or established

patterns. Data is not considered one of the aforementioned.

Choice d is incorrect because 50-year-old data is not the same as

data that was compiled over the past 50 years. The change in wording

changes the meaning entirely.

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167. c. Choice c correctly uses the number of before the two countable

nouns fellow graduates and job openings without any redundancy or

wordiness. Choice a is incorrect because the amount of must be

used only before uncountable nouns. Fellow graduates and available

job openings are countable nouns. Who must be substituted by that

since the word refers to the amount of graduates, not the graduates

themselves. Because the amount of is singular, outnumber must be

outnumbers to agree with a singular subject (if the amount of were

correct, which it isn’t). Furthermore, available job openings is

redundant since the word opening already indicates availability.

Choice b is incorrect because the amount of must be replaced by the

number of in both cases, and available job openings is redundant.

Choice d is incorrect because who must be replaced by that to

agree with the subject the number of, exceed must change to exceeds

to agree with the singular subject the number of fellow graduates, and

available job openings is redundant. Choice e is incorrect because

exceed needs to be exceeds to agree with the singular subject the

number of, and a number of job openings must be the number of job

openings.

168. c. Choice c is the correct answer because it is the most succinct,

effective sentence. Choice a is incorrect because among must be

between. Choice b is incorrect because eased . . . to a greater degree is

redundant and transportation is separated from its modiﬁer by water.

To achieve the most clarity, the modiﬁer needs to be placed

directly next to what it deﬁnes. Choice d is incorrect because it is

in the passive voice, which results in an ambiguous dependent

clause because since its opening in 1869 doesn’t refer to anything. In

addition, any reference to water has been omitted, thereby

changing the meaning of the sentence. Choice e is incorrect

because the reference to water has also been omitted. It also poses

the same problem as choice d in that the ﬁrst clause of the

sentence has no logical referent.

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169. d. Choice d is a concise and clear sentence. Choice a is incorrect

because largely . . . to a great deal is redundant. Choice b is

incorrect because helicopter technology is different from technology in

the helicopters; in this case, shortening the expression changes the

meaning. Also, helicopter technology cannot ﬂy, so the idea is

nonsensical. Choice c is incorrect because helicopter technology

cannot ﬂy, only helicopters can. Also, key elements have been

omitted from the clause after the comma; namely, insertion and

broadcast, which serve to indicate that ﬁrst-down lines in broadcast

games are being referenced, not ﬁrst-down lines at regular games,

the latter of which are irrelevant to the technology being discussed.

Choice e is incorrect because makes is conjugated in the plural

make to refer to helicopters. Helicopters do not make the insertion

of a ﬁrst-down line during a football game broadcast seem

insigniﬁcant; it is the technology that does. Therefore, this

sentence is incorrect.

170. e. Choice e correctly uses commas to set off the nonrestrictive

clause who wrote the short fairy tale opera Brundibar and uses

concise, efﬁcient language. Choice a, though grammatically sound,

is incorrect because his additional developing as a composer is

awkward; developing sounds better as development. Choice b is

incorrect because only hardly is redundant and farther is not the

correct choice. Farther is used when referring to distance; further

means to a greater extent. Choice c is incorrect because not hardly is

incorrect; the two words cannot be used next to each other. Also,

his developing into a better composer is an awkward phrase; developing

must be changed to development and the selection of better implies

that Krasa may have needed improvement. Choice d is incorrect

because a comma is missing after Krasa and Brundibar to set off the

information between those two words as a nonrestrictive clause.

Also, not hardly is not a correct expression and celebratory does not

mean the same thing as celebrated. The sentence is also phrased in

the passive voice, which results in a wordier and more confusing

sentence.

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171. b. Choice b correctly sets off the three items with semicolons and

uses such as before a list. Choice a is incorrect because like pictures,

music, and videos needs to be replaced with such as pictures, music,

and videos; also, a semicolon is needed before a receiver that supports

the DLNA standard, not a comma. Choice c is incorrect because

the ﬁrst which must be that to begin a restrictive clause; like needs

to change to such as, and the comma needs to change to a

semicolon before a receiver that supports. Choice d is incorrect

because which needs to change to that for a restrictive clause (it is

essential that the media source or server contain all the media such as

pictures, music, and videos); also, that before new “smart” TVs needs

to change to which for a nonrestrictive clause (which new “smart”

TVs often do is extra information about the translator, not essential

information). Choice e is incorrect because only commas are used.

Semicolons need to separate the three items that are needed to

transfer media across a home; that is, semicolons are needed after

videos and before a receiver, and after do and before and a translator.

172. a. Choice a is correctly constructed to result in a clear,

comprehensible sentence. Choice b is incorrect because if used

repeatedly on an animal is placed in such a way that it deﬁnes one

reason. The syntax is wrong and the modiﬁer needs to be moved.

Choice c commits the same error with if used repeatedly on an

animal. It also becomes wordier by adding there are ﬂeas, like

cockroaches, that. . . . There are does not add any value to the

sentence; rather, it only makes it wordier and more confusing.

Choice d is incorrect because increasingly has been moved to

modify popular ﬂea medicine; this is incorrect since it changes the

meaning. Choice e is incorrect because if used repeatedly on an

animal is placed so it deﬁnes one reason. The sentence structure

results in an illogical sentence.

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173.

e. Choice e is a concise and clear sentence that includes a

semicolon to logically show the sequence of events in the sentence.

Choice a is incorrect because which should be that since the clause

is restrictive. Choice b is incorrect because the clause following

which should be restrictive without commas and with that instead

of which. Also, the appositive earning him the Nobel Peace Prize in

1987 seems to have been tacked on to the end of the sentence; this

confusing structure makes the sentence awkward. Choice c is

incorrect because its structure implies that Oscar Arias submitted a

peace plan because he received the Nobel Peace Prize. Also,

between needs to change to among. Choice d is incorrect because

which needs to be that, being signed is superﬂuous, and between

needs to be changed to among.

174. c. Choice c correctly uses the that clause to create a clear, active

sentence. Choice a is incorrect because the noun formation ( people

working) is less preferred than the active that clause formation.

Choice b is incorrect because the latter part of its suggested

variation (as tending to work longer hours, in contradiction of ) is

wordier than choice c. Choice d is incorrect because the verb tense

unnecessarily changes to have indicated, the meaning changes by

excluding tending to, and the noun clause (longer hours of work by) is

less preferred than an active verb clause. Choice e is incorrect

because home-working people is not idiomatic and the modiﬁer

outside the ofﬁce has been omitted.

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Reading

Comprehension

Reading comprehension questions on the GMAT tend to be

intimidating and even feared, but they don’t need to be with strategizing

and planning. The subject matter might include unfamiliar subjects with

complicated jargon, but knowing how to read the passages and what to look

for is critical to succeeding. This kind of reading is probably already famil-

iar in your life; it’s only a matter of accessing and employing that skill set

as you take the GMAT. Everyone skims when reading, which helps zero in

on important or necessary information. We do this constantly in life—skim-

ming articles for juicy tidbits, breezing through ingredients to ﬁnd the one

that’s missing, looking at a map and zeroing in on where to be directed and

so on. It’s eliminating the stress and fear of the test while asserting these

skills that will get you through this section.

The GMAT reading comprehension passages are approximately 350

words in length and will be followed by four or so questions. The passages

vary in structure depending on the subject matter and the author’s purpose.

The questions will cover subjects in science, social science, and business.

There are four primary question types on the GMAT:

■

understanding words and statements

■

understanding the logical relationships between signiﬁcant

points and concepts

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236

■

drawing inferences from facts and statements

■

understanding quantitative concepts in verbal material

There is no telling which question type will be on your test, but identify-

ing each question type will help you to know what to look for.

Reading Strategies

Developing a strategy on how you will read these passages is your best

defense against this GMAT section. This will help you to avoid wasting

time looking for the answers after you’ve read the passage.

Skim the passage quickly to get an overall sense of it. Is it objective or

subjective? Is the author presenting an argument or hypothesis or relaying

knowledge on a subject? Is there a speciﬁc tone of the passage, for instance,

is it criticizing? Or is it imploring the reader to change an opinion? What

is the overall subject matter and what is being addressed? Brieﬂy assessing

these things will help to generally understand the passage.

Next, read the ﬁrst question and then read the passage again, this time

reading more closely. Look for transitional words and phrases, such as how-

ever, although, or that being said. Many times these phrases introduce the

main idea or present the argument of the passage. By reading the ﬁrst ques-

tion before getting started on your closer reading, you are multitasking—

you are looking closely at the passage and hunting for the answer to the ﬁrst

question at the same time.

Understanding Words and Statements

The ability to determine the meaning of unfamiliar words from their con-

text is an essential skill for reading comprehension. Sometimes, there will

be unfamiliar words whose meaning you can’t determine without a dic-

tionary. But more often than not, a careful look at the context will give you

enough clues to meaning. Larger words can be broken down to their roots,

or can be deciphered by looking at the preﬁx or sufﬁx.

The general tone or theme of the text can also help you ﬁgure out the

meaning of an unfamiliar word. Titles can also provide clues about the tone

of a story and the type of vocabulary words that are likely to be found in the

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237

text. Tone questions are prevalent on the GMAT; a question might ask you

to identify the slant of the author or the motivation for writing the passage.

If you are unfamiliar with a particular word, use context clues to try to

ﬁgure out its meaning. Draw on the important clues in the sentences that

appear directly before and after the unfamiliar word or passage.

Punctuation can also help you decipher unfamiliar words. Parentheses

are often used to highlight or explain words or phrases and elaborate on the

words that precede them.

Understanding the Structure between Significant

Points and Concepts

On the GMAT, some questions require you to understand the different

points and concepts being presented in a passage. Identifying the author’s

main idea and the secondary, or supporting, ideas is key to answering these

types of questions.

Main idea questions are prevalent on the GMAT. They test your abil-

ity to assess the passage as a whole and identify a summation of it. The

trick is to know the difference between supporting ideas that support the

main idea and the main idea itself. Many times, in a main idea question, the

answer choices are ﬁlled with supporting ideas that are true, but they are

not the central theme. Identifying the difference early will help you weed

out incorrect answer choices. Main idea questions are often presented in

the ﬁrst paragraph of a passage. Sometimes, the main idea is reiterated in

the last paragraph. This is where to best look for your answer to a main

idea question.

Supporting idea questions are also prevalent on the GMAT. The answers

always draw on facts given in the passage, not on assumptions you can make

after reading the passage. The answers are often an exact paraphrase of the

facts given in the passage.

There may be a few questions that require you to apply information.

These questions are a blend of structure and main idea/secondary idea

questions. You may be asked to identify basic passage structure and signiﬁ-

cant relationships or scenarios, and then asked to apply that information to

a completely different set of circumstances. You are looking for the simi-

larities of the structure, rather than the similarities of the subject, when

answering these questions.

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Drawing Inference from Facts and Statements

There will be several inference questions on the GMAT. In these questions,

information is not simply stated; however, speciﬁc clues, structure, and lan-

guage will lead to a conclusion. Identifying the inference requires the appli-

cation of all the facts of the passage, then drawing a reasonable assumption.

Some questions may ask you to determine an implied main idea. Find-

ing an implied main idea is a lot like ﬁnding the stated main idea. A main

idea is deﬁned as an assertion about the subject that controls or holds

together all the ideas in the passage. Therefore, the main idea must be gen-

eral enough to encompass all the ideas in the passage. Much like a net, it

holds everything in the passage together. Implied main ideas are the same;

they are just an invisible net.

GMAT questions are not likely to make wild inferences. They are gen-

erally modest and logical, with very little emotion. Eliminate your personal

opinion at all times; it will lead you in the wrong direction. Utilize logic

instead. Keep the tone of the passage in mind when you’re answering these

questions, as well. Tone and inference cannot contradict one another, so any

answer choices that are not parallel with the tone can be eliminated.

Physical or Biological Science Passages

Physical or biological sciences are one of three different general subjects

explored on the GMAT. Generally, these passages will deal with ﬁeldwork

or a study in progress and its subsequent report. That being said, an angle

or subjectivity can often be found in these passages, either refuting or sup-

porting the main idea. Focus on ﬁnding the central idea at once; it’s likely

a hypothesis of some kind.

The topics will range a wide variety of scientiﬁc areas, but will generally

stay current. A scientiﬁc breakthrough in 1987 isn’t relevant unless the ﬁnd-

ings support a study in progress today.

Set 7

Now it is time to answer GMAT reading comprehension practice questions

that have been designed to test your physical or biological science skills.

Read the passages and answer the questions that follow. Good luck!

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239

Antibiotics and similar drugs, together called antimicrobial agents,

have been used for the last 70 years to treat patients who have infec-

tious diseases. Since the 1940s, these drugs have greatly reduced illness

and death from infectious diseases. Antibiotics have been beneﬁcial

and, when prescribed and taken correctly, their value in patient care is

enormous. However, these drugs have been used so widely and for so

long that the infectious organisms the antibiotics are designed to kill

have adapted to them, making the drugs less effective. Many fungi,

viruses, and parasites have done the same. Some microorganisms may

develop resistance to a single antimicrobial agent (or related class of

agent), while others develop resistance to several antimicrobial agents

or classes. These organisms are often referred to as multidrug-resistant

or MDR strains. In some cases, the microorganisms have become so

resistant that no available antibiotics are effective against them.

Antimicrobial drug resistance occurs everywhere in the world and is

not limited to industrialized nations. Hospitals and other healthcare

settings are battling drug-resistant organisms that spread inside these

institutions. Drug-resistant infections also spread in the community at

large. Examples include drug-resistant pneumonias, sexually transmit-

ted diseases (STDs), and skin and soft tissue infections.

People infected with drug-resistant organisms are more likely to

have longer and more expensive hospital stays, and may be more likely

to die as a result of the infection. When the drug of choice for treating

their infection doesn’t work, they require treatment with second- or

third-choice drugs that may be less effective, more toxic, and more

expensive. This means that patients with an antimicrobial-resistant

infection may suffer more and pay more for treatment.

175.

Which of the following would the author be most likely to

recommend regarding this passage?

A stronger focus in research should be implemented to combat

multidrug-resistant strains.

An increase in funding should be given to third world countries

in an effort to both treat and research new MDR strains.

Staph and MRSA should be listed as deadly diseases.

Safe sex education should be reprioritized as paramount, as it’s a

controllable variable whereas the spreading of soft tissue infec-

tions isn’t.

Healthcare professionals should lower their fees for people who

suffer from MDR strains.

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176. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the

passage?

a. Drug-resistant infections are causing an increase in hospital and

medical fees.

b. Drug-resistant pneumonia and ﬁerce STDs are on their way to

becoming a global epidemic unless preparedness action is

aggressively taken.

c. The longtime use of certain antibiotics has rendered them inef-

fective against the ever-adapting viruses they combat.

d. The value of antibiotics has been underestimated; hence, its

continuing development has been neglected.

e. Antibiotics are frequently not taken correctly, weakening the

immune system against MDR strains.

177. Of the following situations, which most resembles the information

regarding antibiotics in the passage?

a. a superhero who has lost his invisibility powers

b. a cucumber in a salt solution halfway on a course to being a

pickle

c. a sixteenth-century castle surrounded by a giant moat hosting a

kingdom that is being attacked by a rival empire that has canoes

d. two apple pies entered in a bake-off, one made with Granny

Smith apples and one made with Red Delicious

e. Buying tickets to a sold-out show on the street outside the

venue rather than on the Internet through an overinﬂated

third-party source

178. What is most likely the structural purpose of the fourth sentence?

a. to report more data regarding the author’s interest in the study

b. to begin a comparison between two different ideas

c. to introduce a rebuttal to a widely accepted opinion

d. to vehemently denounce an institution’s stance

e. to appeal to the reader’s sense of compassion

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179. Based on the information in the passage, which of these statements

is true?

a. As infectious organisms evolve, less effective and more expen-

sive drugs will have to be used for treatment.

b. Hospitals are the only institutions that beneﬁt from the inefﬁ-

cacy of antibiotics since they’re likely to reap more capital with

increased hospital stays.

c. People who live in industrialized areas are more prone to con-

tracting an MDR strain.

d. If antibiotics were taken as prescribed more often, the viruses

being fought would never have had the chance to adapt to

them.

e. We can expect a rise in sexually transmitted diseases in our soci-

ety since we’ve lost the power to treat them.

180. The tone of this passage could be described as:

a. critical

b. sarcastic

c. admonishing

d. infuriated

e. resentful

Biotechnology can be broadly deﬁned as “using living organisms or

their products for commercial purposes.” As such, biotechnology has

been practiced since the beginning of recorded history in such activi-

ties as baking bread, brewing alcoholic beverages, or breeding food

crops or domestic animals.

A narrower and more speciﬁc deﬁnition of biotechnology is “the

commercial application of living organisms or their products, which

involves the deliberate manipulation of their DNA molecules.” This

deﬁnition implies a set of laboratory techniques developed within the

last 20 years that have been responsible for the tremendous scientiﬁc

and commercial interest in biotechnology, the founding of many new

companies, and the redirection of research efforts and ﬁnancial

resources among established companies and universities.

Combining DNA from different existing organisms (plants, animals,

insects, bacteria, etc.) results in modiﬁed organisms with a combina-

tion of traits from the parents. The sharing of DNA information takes

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place naturally through sexual reproduction and has been exploited in

plant and animal breeding programs for many years.

However, sexual reproduction can occur only between plants and

animals of the same species. A Holstein cow can be mated with a

Hereford bull because the two animals are different breeds of the same

species, cattle. But trying to mate a cow with a horse, a different

species of animal, would not be successful.

What’s new since 1972 is that scientists have been able to identify

the speciﬁc DNA genes for many desirable traits and transfer only

those genes, usually carried on a plasmid or virus, into another organ-

ism. This provides a method to transfer DNA between any living cells

(plant, animal, insect, bacterial, etc.). Virtually any desirable trait found

in nature can, in principle, be transferred into any chosen organism.

An organism modiﬁed by genetic engineering is called transgenic.

Speciﬁc applications of genetic engineering are abundant and

increasing rapidly in number. Genetic engineering is being used in the

production of pharmaceuticals, gene therapy, and the development of

transgenic plants and animals.

181. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?

a. ambivalent

b. critical

c. defensive

d. enthusiastic

e. objective

182. Based on what’s been said thus far, what is the next paragraph most

likely to discuss?

a. the effects of what would happen if a cow and horse were mated

b. the speciﬁc examples of biotechnology and its beneﬁts to

science

c. what happened in 1972 and which scientists were involved

d. who opposes the use of biotechnology

e. how the production of beer is not so different from the produc-

tion of pharmaceuticals

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183. The outcome of the mating of a Holstein cow and a Hereford bull

would be called:

a. an abomination

b. transgenic

c. improbable

d. manipulation

e. transference

184. The relationship between transgenic plants and biotechnology is

most like the relationship between:

a. a graham cracker crust and apple pie

b. hardwood ﬂoors and a shag carpet

c. an airline pilot and a jet plane

d. opiate abuse and addiction

e. sheet music and a grand piano

185. According to the passage, all the following are products of

biotechnology EXCEPT:

a. new lines of pharmaceuticals

b. the breeding of transgenic animals

c. the production of alcoholic beverages

d. the development of viral warfare

e. the transferring of DNA between different organisms

186. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the

passage?

a. The sweeping changes in the use of biotechnology since 1972

have redeﬁned its necessity to mankind.

b. Although still in its ﬂedgling stages, biotechnology shows

promise to help beneﬁt our society one day.

c. As the science of biotechnology continues to broaden and

strengthen, the fruits of its applications become more powerful

and abundant.

d. The swapping of DNA could sometimes yield beneﬁcial results,

but on the whole is too risky to undertake.

e. The development of transgenic plants is paramount to the

development of better pharmaceuticals.

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Men with high risk for heart disease had lower blood pressure after

drinking nonalcoholic red wine every day for 4 weeks, according to a

new study in the American Heart Association journal Circulation

Research.

Nonalcoholic red wine increased participants’ levels of nitric oxide,

which helped decrease both systolic and diastolic blood pressure,

researchers said. Nitric oxide is a molecule in the body that helps

blood vessels relax and allows more blood to reach your heart and

organs.

Researchers studied 67 men with diabetes or three or more cardio-

vascular risk factors, who ate a common diet plus one of the following

drinks: about 10 ounces of red wine, nonalcoholic red wine, or about 3

ounces of gin. All the men tried each diet/beverage combination for 4

weeks.

The red wine and nonalcoholic wine contained equal amounts of

polyphenols, an antioxidant that decreases blood pressure.

During the red wine phase, the men had very little reduction in

blood pressure and there was no change while drinking gin. However,

after drinking nonalcoholic red wine, blood pressure decreased by

about 6 mmHg in systolic and 2 mmHg in diastolic blood pressure—

possibly reducing the risk of heart disease by 14% and stroke by as

much as 20%.

Researchers concluded that the alcohol in red wine weakens its abil-

ity to lower blood pressure. But polyphenols—still present after alco-

hol is removed from wine—are likely the beneﬁcial element in wine.

187. The study in the passage would best conclude that

a. alcohol has no effect on blood pressure.

b. alcoholics are the most likely to suffer strokes.

c. the antioxidants present in red wine that are beneﬁcial to health

concerns are negated by alcohol.

d. polyphenols are detrimental to health.

e. drinking gin is a useless endeavor.

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188. Based on the information in the passage, nonalcoholic red wine

will have a better impact on combating

a. neither heart disease nor stroke.

b. stroke.

c. heart disease.

d. stroke and heart disease.

e. nitric oxide.

189. It can be inferred from the passage that diabetic men

a. have a propensity for eating and drinking beyond the point of

average human consumption.

b. are susceptible to having a negative reaction to nitric oxide.

c. are at higher risk than the average male for developing heart

disease.

d. have a physiological reaction to red wine.

e. have blood pressure that’s anywhere from 14% to 20% higher

than the average male’s.

190. According to the information in the passage, which of the

following best expresses the main idea?

a. The consumption of alcoholic beverages is constantly proving

to be detrimental to health.

b. Polyphenols are of great value to the human body.

c. The alcohol in red wine negates the positive effects the con-

sumption of polyphenols can achieve.

d. Nitric oxide helps blood vessels to relax, allowing more blood

ﬂow to the heart and brain.

e. The risk of heart disease can be reduced by drinking red wine

191. The purpose of paragraph 5 is to

a. introduce the variables that will support a thesis.

b. present the counterpoint to the passage.

c. include the support of additional peripheral expertise.

d. present the ﬁndings for the conclusion of a study.

e. defend an opinion.

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192. The two different wines mentioned in the passage most resemble:

a. a Labrador retriever and a Labradoodle

b. whole milk and lactose-free milk

c. Granny Smith apples and Fuji apples

d. a gas oven and a microwave oven

e. a Big Wheel and a bicycle

Widespread media coverage tells us today of a new drug that “halts”

Alzheimer’s symptoms “for three years.” The news is based on a press

release issued yesterday that highlighted positive early results of

research into the use of intravenous immunoglobulin to treat

Alzheimer’s disease.

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is a medication made by har-

vesting antibodies from donated blood. It is currently used to treat

severe forms of infection and a number of autoimmune conditions

(where the immune system attacks healthy tissue).

The idea behind using IVIG to treat Alzheimer’s disease is that it

could encourage the immune system to “attack” abnormal clumps of

protein (amyloid plaques) that can develop in the brains of people with

Alzheimer’s disease.

Some media coverage of the press release was inaccurate. The Daily

Express tells us there is a “pill to beat Alzheimer’s” when IVIG is actu-

ally given by injection into a blood vessel. The Daily Mail describes it

as a “new vaccine,” which is technically incorrect as it implies only one

injection needs to be given when in fact IVIG was injected every two

weeks.

Once past the somewhat misleading headlines, most coverage does

mention that it may be 10 years before this drug can be available, if it

passes further scrutiny. IVIG can also be very expensive to manufac-

ture, so this may limit its availability through the national health

service.

Limited conclusions can be drawn from this research as it is in its

early stage, was conducted on a small number of people, and was not

peer-reviewed. Larger studies that compare IVIG to other existing

treatments for Alzheimer’s disease are required to determine how safe

and effective the drug is.

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193. Which of the following would be the most ﬁtting title to this

passage?

a. New Drug to Combat Alzheimer’s to Be Released on the

Market

b. Alzheimer’s Cure a Complete Fabrication

c. Miracle Pill for Alzheimer’s Has Patients Hopeful

d. Weakened Immune Systems of Patients to Blame for

Alzheimer’s

e. Reports of Potential Breakthrough Alzheimer’s Treatment Both

Premature and Misinformed

194. The author’s attitude about the medication being studied to treat

Alzheimer’s would be best described as:

a. skeptical

b. ambivalent

c. stoic

d. enthusiastic

e. cantankerous

195. According to the passage, all of the following are true about IVIG

EXCEPT:

a. IVIG will be administered by injection.

b. IVIG will encourage the immune system to ﬁght proteins in the

brain.

c. IVIG can be deﬁned as a vaccine.

d. IVIG may not be available for 10 years or more.

e. IVIG may not be cost-efﬁcient to produce.

196. Which of the following would best describe the purpose of the

fourth paragraph?

a. It refutes an argument presented by others in the medical ﬁeld.

b. It provides an objective approach that has been expounded

upon by many.

c. It serves to introduce the author’s misgivings about the media.

d. It denounces the accuracy of a study.

e. It combines the background information with the opinions of

different medical professionals.

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197. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to

agree with?

a. Exciting new medical breakthroughs regarding the treatment of

Alzheimer’s could be around the corner, but it is unknown how

long the road ahead is.

b. The use of IVIG should be introduced to senile mice before it

is used to treat people.

c. Research dedicated to a drug that doesn’t attack abnormal

clumps but rather coaxes them should be paramount for any sci-

entists involved in this study.

d. The media have a tendency to deliver misleading information

to the public because sensationalism sells.

e. A national healthcare system could introduce medications to

people with Alzheimer’s who couldn’t afford it otherwise.

Even the smallest quantity of salmonella may, in the future, be easily

detected with a technology known as SERS, short for “surface-

enhanced Raman scattering.” U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)

scientist Bosoon Park at Athens, GA, is leading exploratory studies of

this analytical technique’s potential for quick, easy, and reliable detec-

tion of salmonella and other foodborne pathogens.

According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention,

salmonella causes more than one million cases of illness in the United

States every year.

If SERS proves successful for cornering salmonella, the technique

might be used at public health laboratories around the nation to rapidly

identify this or other pathogens responsible for outbreaks of foodborne

illness, according to Park, an agricultural engineer. What’s more, tomor-

row’s food makers might use SERS at their in-house quality control labs.

The Agricultural Research Service is the USDA’s chief intramural

scientiﬁc research agency. Park’s research supports the USDA priority

of enhancing food safety.

In a SERS analysis, a specimen is placed on a surface, such as a

stainless steel plate, that has been “enhanced,” or changed from

smooth to rough. For some of their research, Park’s team enhanced the

surface of stainless steel plates by coating them with tiny spheres, made

up of a biopolymer encapsulated with nanoparticles of silver.

Rough surfaces, and colloidal metals such as silver, can enhance the

scattering of light that occurs when a specimen, placed on this

nanosubstrate, is scanned with the Raman spectrometer’s laser beam.

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The scattered light that comes back to the spectroscope forms a dis-

tinct spectral pattern known as a Raman spectral signature, or Raman

scattered signal. Researchers expect to prove the concept that all mole-

cules, such as those that make up salmonella, have their own unique

Raman spectral signature.

The idea of using a substrate of silver nanoparticles for Raman spec-

troscopy is not new. But in SERS studies to detect foodborne

pathogens, the use of a surface enhanced with biopolymers coated with

silver nanoparticles is apparently novel.

In work with comparatively large concentrations of two different

kinds, or serotypes, of salmonella enterica—enteritidis and

typhimurium—Park’s tests showed, apparently for the ﬁrst time, that

SERS can differentiate these two serotypes. With further research,

SERS may prove superior for ﬁnding very small quantities of bacteria

in a complex, real-world background, such as a food or beverage sam-

ple, Park notes.

198. Which of the following is NOT like the rest of the answer

choices?

a. foodborne pathogens

b. salmonella

c. typhimurium

d. clemteritidis

e. biopolymers

199. Which of the following most accurately expresses the main idea of

the passage?

a. Colloidal metals such as silver can enhance the scattering of

light that occurs when a specimen is placed under a Raman

laser.

b. Scientists are close to ﬁnding a way to detect salmonella and

other foodborne illnesses with the development of a surface-

enhanced Raman scattering laser.

c. The U.S. Department of Agriculture has been diligently look-

ing for an effective way to detect foodborne illness earlier.

d. The idea of using a substrate of silver nanoparticles is revolu-

tionary and SERS is one way of illustrating that.

e. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention,

salmonella causes a great number of health problems that the

general public is not aware of.

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200. According to the passage, a nanosubstrate is

a. a laser beam that can detect salmonella.

b. tiny spheres made of a colloidal metal.

c. an enhanced surface that the specimen being tested will be

placed on.

d. the scattered light that comes back to the spectroscope after

using SERS.

e. a foodborne pathogen.

201. The enhanced surface described in the passage most resembles

which of the following?

a. a stripped screw that no drill bit can reckon with

b. a peach’s skin as opposed to an apple’s skin

c. a skinned knee after a few days

d. a cat’s reaction to a red laser beam light

e. an old tire’s tread

202. The author’s inclusion of the information in the second paragraph

is most likely intended to

a. criticize the work of the United States Centers for Disease

Control.

b. support the research of Park for the SERS project.

c. alienate the speciﬁc problems salmonella can produce.

d. emphasize the importance of the research being conducted.

e. reiterate the main idea of the article.

Social Science Passages

The second type of passage found on the GMAT deals with the social sci-

ences. These passages might touch on history, geography, and politics.

They may cover current social topics. These passages are probably the eas-

iest to read; they are unlikely to contain scientiﬁc jargon and business lan-

guage. They are, however, most likely to be accompanied by inference

questions, so read carefully. Try not to jump to conclusions based on your

opinions and judgments.

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Set 8

Now it is time to answer GMAT reading comprehension practice questions

that have been designed to test your social science skills. Read the passages

and answer the questions that follow. Good luck!

In 1891, the federal government assumed responsibility from the states

for regulating immigration through the Immigration Act of 1891,

which established the Ofﬁce of Immigration (later the Bureau of

Immigration) to administer immigration affairs. The government also

appropriated money to build a new immigrant inspection station on

Ellis Island. The Immigration Act assigned the Marine Hospital Service

(later the Public Health Service) the responsibility of examining the

health of immigrants entering the United States.

Before construction of Ellis Island’s ﬁrst immigration depot began,

the island was doubled in size with landﬁll. A ferry slip was dredged

and a dock installed next to the main building site. A number of older

buildings from the island’s time as a military post were adapted for

reuse. Ellis Island’s ﬁrst immigration building, constructed of Georgia

pine, opened on January 1, 1892.

Due to the economic depression at the time, immigration was light

and Ellis Island inspectors had no difﬁculty processing the fewer than

20,000 immigrants who arrived annually. On June 15, 1897, a ﬁre

destroyed the complex of wooden buildings. Although 140 immigrants

and numerous employees were on the island, no one was killed.

The government announced almost immediately that Ellis Island

would be rebuilt with ﬁreproof buildings. The New York architectural

ﬁrm of Boring and Tilton was awarded the contract after a competi-

tion entered by ﬁve outstanding ﬁrms, including McKim, Mead &

White.

The ﬁrst building to be built was the new main immigration build-

ing, which opened on December 17, 1900. Following its completion,

the kitchen and laundry and powerhouse buildings were erected in

1901 and the island was enlarged by landﬁll to make room for a hospi-

tal complex. In March of 1902, the main hospital building opened.

The hospital had the space and equipment to care for 125 patients but

it was still not enough—the hospital was overwhelmed with patients

diagnosed with trachoma, favus, and other contagious illnesses that

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warranted exclusion. Over the next seven years, additional buildings

were added to the hospital complex, including the Hospital Addition /

Administration building, the New Hospital Extension, and the Psy-

chopathic Ward. The island was also enlarged once more using land-

ﬁll, which allowed for the construction of a contagious disease hospital

and isolation wards, as well as additional support buildings.

203. Which of the following statements best summarizes the passage?

a. Architecture on Ellis Island set a precedent on how immigrants

were treated, and was used as a means of segregation.

b. Immigrants were forced to stay in hospitals if they were not

well enough to help build new buildings on the island before

they were admitted to the United States.

c. Ellis Island had a health epidemic due to disease and illness

brought by immigrants that led the government to build large

extensions on the existing hospital and surrounding grounds.

d. The island had to be enlarged through the use of landﬁll to add

many isolation wards for the mentally ill who were to be

deported.

e. Due to a large ﬁre, thousands of immigrants were deported

until the island was completely demolished and rebuilt after the

Great Depression.

204. What role did the federal government play in regulating

immigration on Ellis Island?

a. The government consulted an award-winning architecture ﬁrm

that was hired to design buildings that had only small capacity,

thus forcing overﬂow to be deported.

b. They oversaw the employment of every physically able immi-

grant to work on construction sites before they were accepted

into the United States.

c. The government set up mandates such as one requiring that all

immigrants be tested for literacy upon entering the United

States.

d. Certain age groups were not allowed to enter the United States.

e. The government oversaw the physical and mental inspection of

all people trying to enter the United States.

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205. Which of the following statements presented in paragraph 2 helps

to further the passage the most?

a. The island was doubled in size with landﬁll.

b. Immigration was light due to an economic depression.

c. Older buildings already on the island were repurposed to func-

tion for immigration.

d. The buildings were constructed of Georgia pine.

e. The ﬁrst immigration building was opened on January 1, 1892.

206. Based on the information provided, the author of the passage

would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

a. If the buildings had been made with ﬁre-safe materials the ﬁrst

time around, a lot of energy could have been spared rebuilding

the island.

b. It would have been advantageous to have built the hospital

before any of the other buildings on the island.

c. An economic depression spared the island from being over-

whelmed much sooner than it was.

d. The island was enlarged by landﬁll to accommodate people as

more responsibilities for them presented themselves.

e. The creation of competition to erect the buildings on Ellis

Island helped to keep the architects at their very best when

drafting plans for expansion.

207. What was constructed after the completion of the third landﬁll?

a. the main house constructed of Georgia pine

b. the laundry room

c. a psychopathic ward

d. a contagious disease ward

e. the main hospital building

Almost 12 million immigrants were processed through the immigra-

tion station on Ellis Island between 1892 and 1954 when the station

closed. By 1924, however, the number of immigrants being processed

at Ellis Island had been signiﬁcantly reduced by anti-immigration leg-

islation designed to establish quotas by nationality. This legislation

dramatically reduced the number of immigrants allowed to enter the

United States.

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The Emergency Quota Act, passed in 1921, ended the United

States’ open door immigration policy. The law signiﬁcantly reduced

the number of admissions by setting quotas according to nationality.

The number of people of each nationality that could be admitted to

the United States was limited to 3% of that nationality’s representation

in the U.S. census of 1910. The law created havoc for those on Ellis

Island and thousands of immigrants were stranded on the island await-

ing deportation. The island sometimes became so overcrowded that

ofﬁcials had to admit excess-quota immigrants.

The First Quota Act was replaced with the even more restrictive

Immigration Act of 1924. This act further limited admissions of each

nationality to the United States to 2% of that nationality’s representa-

tion in the 1890 census. The act sought not only to limit admissions to

the United States, but also to curtail immigration of southern and east-

ern Europeans, who by the 1900s comprised over 50% of the immi-

grant ﬂow. Additionally, the Immigration Act of 1924 allowed

prospective immigrants to undergo inspection before they left their

homeland, making the trip to Ellis Island unnecessary.

Anti-immigration legislation passed in the 1920s, as well as the

Great Depression, kept immigration at an all-time low. For the ﬁrst

time in Ellis Island’s history, deportation far outnumbered admissions.

In view of this situation, the Ellis Island Advisory Committee (a com-

mittee appointed by the Department of Labor under Franklin D.

Roosevelt’s New Deal program) advised that new buildings be erected

for detained immigrants to separate them from deportees, who were

often criminals. This ﬁnal surge of construction included the new

immigration building, the new ferry house, and the new recreation

building and recreation shelters.

208. According to the passage, what was the main reason that

immigration numbers fell during the 1920s?

a. the enactment of anti-immigration legislation

b. the Great Depression

c. overcrowding at Ellis Island

d. overwhelming disease

e. None of these are accurate.

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209. Which best represents the main idea of the passage?

a. Quota legislation was designed to control the number of immi-

grants based on their nationality.

b. Due to criminality, a series of quotas were designed and imple-

mented.

c. The Emergency Quota was enacted to ostensibly shut the door

on the United States’ open door policy until after the Great

Depression.

d. The enactment of quotas only allowed 1% of one nationality

that was currently represented in the United States in at a time.

e. The threat of deportation caused widespread panic on Ellis

Island during the 1920s.

210. The tone of the passage would be best described as:

a. restrained

b. nostalgic

c. inﬂammatory

d. informative

e. contemptuous

211. The Immigration Act of 1924 would most likely negatively affect

which of the following groups of people?

a. the Ellis Island Advisory Committee

b. citizens of Greece wishing to emigrate

c. citizens of Great Britain wishing to emigrate

d. the Lower East Side of New York City

e. citizens of Italy and Great Britain wishing to emigrate

212. What is the purpose of the fourth paragraph?

a. to support a theory previously expanded on

b. to paraphrase the information already given and reach a general

conclusion

c. to refute the facts provided

d. to pinpoint speciﬁc problems with the outcome of previous

paragraphs

e. to criticize an institution

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The intense preparation required for the law school admission test

(LSAT) changes the structure of the brain, resulting in stronger con-

nections between areas of the brain that play an important role in

reasoning.

That’s the ﬁnding of University of California, Berkeley, neuroscien-

tists who used diffusion tensor imaging to analyze the brains of 24 col-

lege students or recent graduates before and after 100 hours of LSAT

training over three months.

The ﬁndings suggest that training people in reasoning skills can

reinforce brain circuits involved in thinking and reasoning and might

even help increase a person’s IQ scores, the researchers said.

“The fact that performance on the LSAT can be improved with

practice is not new. People know that they can do better on the LSAT,

which is why preparation courses exist,” study leader Allyson Mackey,

a graduate student in UC Berkeley’s Helen Wills Neuroscience Insti-

tute, said in a university news release.

“What we were interested in is whether and how the brain changes

as a result of LSAT preparation, which we think is, fundamentally, rea-

soning training. We wanted to show that the ability to reason is mal-

leable in adults,” she explained.

The U.S. National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke

funded the study, along with Blueprint Test Preparation, the release

noted.

The study was published recently in the journal Frontiers in Neu-

roanatomy.

“A lot of people still believe that you are either smart or you are not,

and sure, you can practice for a test, but you are not fundamentally

changing your brain,” senior author Silvia Bunge, an associate profes-

sor in the UC Berkeley department of psychology and the Helen Wills

Neuroscience Institute, said in the news release.

“Our research provides a more positive message. How you perform

on one of these tests is not necessarily predictive of your future suc-

cess, it merely reﬂects your prior history of cognitive engagement, and

potentially how prepared you are at this time to enter a graduate pro-

gram or a law school, as opposed to how prepared you could ever be,”

Bunge noted.

Another expert, John Gabrieli, a professor of cognitive neuroscience

at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, agreed.

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“I think this is an exciting discovery,” Gabrieli, who was not

involved in the study, said in the news release. “It shows, with rigorous

analysis, that brain pathways important for thinking and reasoning

remain plastic in adulthood, and that intensive, real-life educational

experience that trains reasoning also alters the brain pathways that

support reasoning ability,” he explained.

213. Which of the following best describes the tone of this passage?

a. passionate

b. despondent

c. articulate

d. opinionated

e. arrogant

214. All the following institutions were included in the study EXCEPT:

a. University of California at Berkeley

b. Helen Wills Neuroscience Institute

c. Massachusetts Institute of Technology

d. The U.S. National Institute of Neurological Disorders and

Stroke

e. Blueprint Test Preparation

215. The purpose of paragraph 3 is best described by which of the

following?

a. to present more cumulative data

b. to introduce an argument that deﬁes a theory

c. to introduce the comparative study of two different theories

d. to paraphrase the hypothesis

e. none of the above

216. This passage suggests:

a. insight to how test takers will score in the future

b. humans have pliable minds capable of change despite how smart

we are.

c. people are born with little or no ability to reason.

d. lawyers are more likely to have heightened reasoning skills.

e. 100 hours is enough time to affect a person’s ability to reason.

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217. Which of the following best describes the main idea of the

passage?

a. An increase in IQ is possible through training that will

strengthen brain circuits used for reasoning and thinking.

b. The U.S. National Institute of Neurological Disorders and

Stroke funded the study because of the inferred link between a

brain in atrophy and stroke.

c. Merely practicing for a test can make your brain fundamentally

change chemically.

d. Preparedness can predict your future success and reﬂect your

prior cognitive engagement.

e. Preparing for law school will inadvertently shift an individual’s

IQ upward.

218. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. Possible improvement on the LSAT with training and prepara-

tion is old news.

b. Even after preparation, a score of a test is only predictive of

your brain function at the time of taking the test and not of how

you could score in the future.

c. Brain function speciﬁc to reasoning is malleable through adult-

hood.

d. Intensive, real-life educational experience that trains reasoning

cannot alter the brain pathways that support reasoning ability.

e. The LSAT fundamentally amounts to reasoning training.

Thirty percent of health spending in the United States in 2009—about

$750 billion—was wasted on unnecessary services, excessive adminis-

tration costs, fraud, and other problems, a government advisory panel

said Thursday.

The report from the Institute of Medicine urges that changes be

made to the United States healthcare system to reduce costs and

improve care.

Institute of Medicine experts added, however, that inefﬁciency, a

vast amount of data, and other economic and quality issues obstruct

efforts to improve health and threaten the nation’s economic stability

and global competitiveness, the document warned.

Numerous inefﬁciencies caused needless suffering. One estimate

indicates that about 75,000 deaths might have been prevented in 2005

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if every state had delivered healthcare at the level of the best-

performing state.

Gradual upgrades and changes by individual hospitals or healthcare

providers are inadequate to solve the problems, the report committee

said.

“Achieving higher-quality care at lower cost will require an across-

the-board commitment to transform the U.S. health system into a

‘learning’ system that continuously improves by systematically captur-

ing and broadly disseminating lessons from every care experience and

new research discovery,” according to an Institute of Medicine news

release.

Solutions include greater use of electronic health records, promot-

ing patient and family involvement in healthcare decision making, and

quicker adoption of medical breakthroughs.

“It will necessitate embracing new technologies to collect and tap

clinical data at the point of care, engaging patients and their families as

partners, and establishing greater teamwork and transparency within

healthcare organizations,” according to the news release. “Also, incen-

tives and payment systems should emphasize the value and outcomes

of care.”

“The nation has the knowledge and tools to improve the health sys-

tem so it can provide better quality care at lower cost,” the report

authors said.

“The threats to Americans’ health and economic security are clear

and compelling, and it’s time to get all hands on deck,” report commit-

tee chairman Mark Smith, president and CEO of California Health-

Care Foundation, said in the news release.

219. This passage is primarily concerned with

a. the advancement of technology to better aid the healthcare

system.

b. the pain and suffering current patients are living with due to an

incompetent system.

c. the paramount necessity to lower spending while boosting care

quality within the medical ﬁeld.

d. the ill effects of poorly appropriated budget and its inadvertent

consequences.

e. the inevitable decline in our healthcare due to fraud, theft, and

shoddy products.

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220. Which of the following is NOT being suggested to change our

healthcare system?

a. gradual upgrades and changes by individual hospitals

b. the implementation of an ever-evolving healthcare system

c. encouraging families to get involved with sick relatives’ progno-

sis and treatment

d. using the knowledge and resources already available to make

substantial headway

e. digitalizing our record system

221. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with

which of the following statements?

a. Obamacare should be implemented at once.

b. The U.S. healthcare system has the wherewithal to be much

better than it is, but due to human error it remains redundant

and ineffective.

c. This country is in desperate need of a universal healthcare sys-

tem.

d. In spite of its ineffectiveness, the United States still has one of

the strongest healthcare systems.

e. Insurance companies that do not process individuals’ claims

because of legal loopholes should be disenfranchised.

222. The author’s attitude toward the U.S. healthcare system could be

best described as:

a. irrational

b. critical

c. impartial

d. moralistic

e. sardonic

223. The report being discussed in the passage would be of interest to

which of the following individuals?

a. healthcare professionals

b. people without insurance

c. insurance companies

d. data entry specialists

e. Americans

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224. The basic structure of this passage is

a. to present a point and its counterpoint.

b. to state a hypothesis and evidence to support said theory.

c. to deliver data supporting an idea and a recommended agenda.

d. to contrast two opposing theories.

e. to attack an opposing theory.

In 1977, an international tobacco industry trade group, including rep-

resentatives of all major cigarette companies, noted in a document on

the social acceptability of smoking that “cigarette smoking is becoming

a downscale social activity.” As the disease effects of smoking became

better understood, more afﬂuent and educated people were the most

likely to quit. Cigarette companies thus increasingly marketed toward

lower-income, less educated, and minority segments of the U.S. popu-

lation. A marketing study done for R.J. Reynolds (RJR) noted in a

downscale market proﬁle that this demographic was “more impres-

sionable to marketing/advertising . . . they’re more susceptible.

They’re less formed intellectually . . . more malleable.”

In addition to general marketing efforts directed toward downscale

consumers, by the early 1990s the homeless had become one of the

sub-populations specifically targeted by major cigarette companies.

For example, RJR included direct targeting to the homeless as part of

an urban marketing plan in the 1990s, focused on the advertising of

“value” brands to “street people.” In 1990, American Tobacco paid for

product placement and supplied cigarettes for the movie Robocop 3,

which showed homeless activists smoking Pall Malls and Lucky

Strikes. In addition to advertising, tobacco companies gave away ciga-

rette brand logo products to the homeless; for example, in 1994 Philip

Morris (PM) apparently distributed 7,000 Merit cigarette brand

labeled blankets to New York homeless shelters and homeless individ-

uals. By the late 1990s, the ties between homelessness and smoking

had grown so overt that a major marketing periodical characterized

the target market of Brown and Williamson’s GPC brand as “Home-

less Man.”

Offering free samples is a well-established strategy by which

tobacco companies recruit new smokers, and cigarette samples were

distributed to homeless shelters, mental hospitals, and homeless service

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organizations. In 1988 alone, Lorillard Tobacco Company spent over

$570,000 on cigarette donations, though not all of these were distrib-

uted to marginalized populations. Internal company documents show

that in a single month in 1990, however, Lorillard distributed over 100

sample packs apiece to a homeless shelter, a soup kitchen, and a mental

health association. Similar donations were logged regularly from 1983

to at least 1993.

225. According to the passage, what other demographics will likely be

targeted by the tobacco industry?

a. senior citizens

b. adolescent children

c. the homeless

d. the afﬂuent

e. actors

226. The author implies that the motivation of RJR to distribute Merit

cigarette brand labeled blankets to homeless shelters in New York

City was to

a. elevate public opinion of the tobacco industry.

b. give back to the community it was receiving business from.

c. illustrate compassion for humanitarian concerns in the face of

scrutiny from the medical ﬁeld.

d. target homeless people as a marketing strategy.

e. achieve recognition as a charitable organization.

227. Taken in context with the passage, malleable most nearly means:

a. breakable

b. refractory

c. pliable

d. malicious

e. intractable

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228. Which of the following best represents the main idea of the

passage?

a. The tobacco industry gives out free cigarettes to the less fortu-

nate population in an effort to stimulate more popularity among

them.

b. As the awareness of the ill effects of cigarettes increases, the

afﬂuent and more educated start stubbing out their cigarettes.

c. The homeless and other downscale consumers became a main

target for tobacco marketing.

d. Merit, Pall Mall, and Lucky Strike are the most popular ciga-

rettes within the homeless demographic of cigarette smokers.

e. R.J. Reynolds is a despicable company that lacks both tact and

shame in its approach to selling cigarettes.

229. Which of the following best describes the author’s tone?

a. poignant objectivity

b. critical and informative

c. impartial and somber

d. restrained scorn

e. cold anger

230. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following is

the author most likely to be afﬁliated with?

a. R.J. Reynolds

b. New York City homeless shelters

c. an antismoking campaign

d. the board of health

e. a homeless activist group

Business Passages

The ﬁnal type of GMAT passage involves business-related topics. Business

passages can be challenging to read; they will contain unique vocabulary

and “business-speak.” Read slowly and try to identify root words if you

encounter an unfamiliar term. It is also helpful to identify the author of

these types of passages or determine whether a passage deals with a speciﬁc

business or industry. This will help you classify the tone, speciﬁcally

whether a passage will be subjective or objective in nature.

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Set 9

Now it is time to answer GMAT Reading Comprehension practice ques-

tions that have been designed to test your business skills. Read the passages

and answer the questions that follow. Good luck!

A gene that keeps switchgrass forever young could have far-reaching

implications for the development of the plant as a biofuel crop, accord-

ing to U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) scientists.

Inserting a specific gene called corngrass from corn into switchgrass

essentially keeps the perennial grass in its juvenile form—a plant that

doesn’t flower, doesn’t produce seeds, and doesn’t have a dormant

growth phase. Because of these changes, the sugars making up the

plant starch are more readily available for conversion into cellulosic

ethanol.

According to Agricultural Research Service (ARS) geneticist Sarah

Hake, the starch in these transgenic plants stays inside the stem

because it isn’t needed elsewhere for nourishing ﬂower buds and blos-

soms. As a result, starch levels can increase as much as 250%, which

increases the sugars that can be fermented into ethanol.

Hake, director of the ARS Plant Gene Expression Center in Albany,

CA, teamed with University of California–Berkeley plant geneticist

George Chuck to conduct this investigation. ARS is the USDA’s chief

intramural scientiﬁc research agency, and this work supports the

USDA priority of developing new sources of bioenergy.

The scientists observed that the leaves in the transgenic switchgrass

are not nearly as stiff as leaves in switchgrass cultivars that haven’t been

modiﬁed. In addition, they determined that leaf lignin is slightly dif-

ferent in the transgenic switchgrass than leaf lignin in other plants.

This could lead to new ﬁndings on how to break down the sturdy

lignin and release sugars for fermentation, a development that will be

essential to the commercial production of cellulosic ethanol.

The researchers are now introducing DNA segments called genetic

promoters that would “turn on” the expression of the corngrass gene

in aboveground switchgrass shoots. This could help increase root mass

development that otherwise would be inhibited by the gene. Hake and

Chuck also suggest that developing nonﬂowering switchgrass varieties

would eliminate the possibility of cross-pollination between transgenic

switchgrass cultivars and other switchgrass cultivars.

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231. The following are all side effects of the modiﬁed switchgrass

EXCEPT:

a. stiffer leaves

b. infertility

c. dormant growth

d. inability to ﬂower

e. higher sugar levels

232. The passage suggests that the development of transgenic

switchgrass will

a. eliminate the need to farm corn.

b. support the USDA’s priority of ﬁnding alternative fuel sources.

c. strengthen the plant lignin.

d. introduce new DNA segments.

e. pit the Department of Agriculture against the Plant Gene

Expression Center.

233. The passage’s primary function is to

a. criticize the work of an institution.

b. compare two possible solutions when only one is needed.

c. provide the outcome of a ﬁnished study.

d. optimistically deliver the ﬁndings of a study in progress.

e. eliminate assumptions that are not critical to the ﬁndings.

234. Geneticist Sarah Hake heads the

a. U.S. Department of Agriculture.

b. University of California–Berkeley.

c. corngrass study.

d. Plant Gene Expression Center.

e. Agricultural Research Center.

235. Which of the following would be most interested in the study?

a. corn farmers

b. Orville Redenbacher

c. alternative energy car manufacturers

d. the president of the United States

e. DNA specialists

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236. Which of the following inferences can be drawn based on the

information provided in the passage?

a. The USDA has previously neglected its duty to prioritize the

development of biofuels.

b. Our society is becoming more open to the idea of widespread

use of genetically engineered products.

c. We will inevitably drain all our fuel sources, forcing the priori-

tization of the USDA to produce more.

d. The development of switchgrass can lead to a lot of promising

uses from different avenues.

e. The cross-pollination of different variants of switchgrass is a lit-

tle problem that could have devastating effects.

Natural gas use for power generation rose this summer because of hot

weather-driven electricity demand for air conditioning coupled with

low natural gas prices. According to Bentek Energy, estimated daily

natural gas use to produce electric power (also called power burn)

averaged 26.3 billion cubic feet per day (Bcf/d) so far in 2012

( Jan 1–Aug 15), up 24% compared to the same period for 2011.

Bentek Energy, which has been estimating power burn since January

2005, said that 17 of the 25 highest days of power burn since 2005

occurred this summer between June 28 and August 9. The two main

drivers of the increased use of natural gas at power plants this year are

weather and a structural shift toward generating more electricity from

natural gas-fired power plants.

The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration reported

the warmest first half of the year since 1895 in 28 states, and that heat

continued in July and August. U.S. population-weighted cooling

degree days (CDDs), a measure of cooling requirements, averaged

26% higher than the 30-year average from January 1 through August

15, and has been consistently above average for most of the year.

Regionally, CDDs in the Midwest, where hot, dry weather was partic-

ularly severe, were 59% above their 30-year average, with the North-

east, South, and West at 43%, 18%, and 14%, respectively, above their

corresponding averages.

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In April 2012, the Energy Information Administration (EIA) reported

that monthly shares of coal- and natural gas-ﬁred generation were

equal for the ﬁrst time. This is a result of several factors, including:

■

lower natural gas prices, the result of new drilling technologies,

growing production, a large increase in proved reserves, and robust

natural gas infrastructure additions over the last several years

■

power plant efﬁciencies, with newer natural gas units more efﬁcient

than older coal units and rising capacity factors of natural gas-ﬁred

units

■

Coal unit retirements, expecting almost 9,000 MW of coal-ﬁred

capacity to be retired in 2012, with additional retirements in subse-

quent years

237. Which of the following most accurately summarizes the main

point of the passage?

a. It is clear by how much energy we are burning that the earth’s

weather patterns are becoming increasingly warmer.

b. Coal units are not as efﬁcient or cost-effective as natural gas

sources.

c. The Northeast and Midwest are going to become warmer and

warmer each year.

d. Due to weather and lower natural gas prices, power plants are

using natural gas more than ever as an energy source.

e. The earth is running out of efﬁcient ways to produce electricity

as it gets warmer and warmer, creating a precarious predica-

ment.

238. According to the passage, Bentek Energy is responsible for

a. an alliance with National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administra-

tion to strategize what to do about the energy crisis.

b. gathering and collecting data that will assess the use of natural

gases.

c. newer natural gas units that are more efﬁcient than older coal

units.

d. the leveling of the playing ﬁeld between coal and natural gas.

e. bringing up public consciousness about the amount of power

being used.

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239. Based on the passage, which of the following statements can be

inferred regarding the earth’s future weather patterns?

a. Eventually all life will either adapt to hotter conditions or

become extinct.

b. There will not be enough energy left on the planet to accom-

modate the drastic differences in weather.

c. If it continues to grow warmer, a parallel rise in energy use will

occur, accounted for by air conditioning.

d. The West is the best region to live in for moderate weather

conditions.

e. Hurricanes and typhoons will become more devastating and

increase in occurrence.

240. The purpose of the last sentence of the ﬁrst paragraph is to

a. refute the facts that Bentek Energy keeps delivering.

b. emphasize the central idea of the passage.

c. present a new point of view to be discussed.

d. segue into a new discussion of more interest to the author.

e. deliver a hopeful message regarding the increased use of power.

241. Based on the information provided by the passage, which would

most likely reﬂect the author’s attitude regarding natural gas

usage?

a. dreamy

b. objective

c. hollow

d. complimentary

e. elegiac

242. Which of the following pairs most resembles the relationship

between coal and natural gas as presented in the passage?

a. a hard-wired chandelier and a table lamp

b. a kick drum and a drum machine

c. a video rental store and a streaming video system

d. an electrical outlet and a generator

e. a bicycle and a skateboard

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Our flagship market is focused on building strong brands, translating

brand value into customer value, and strengthening system capabilities

to sustain and repeat success. We delivered solid results in a challeng-

ing environment, including 2% organic volume growth, as we contin-

ued our integration efforts following the largest acquisition in our

company’s history, creating synergy savings to reinvest in our brands

and capabilities. Strong consumer and customer programs included

ABC Soda, which generated more than 2.1 billion consumer impres-

sions, and continued successful marketing partnerships between ABC

Soda and XYZ Drinks. Effective execution of our occasion-based,

brand, package, price, and channel strategies delivered volume and

value share gains across beverage categories. ABC Soda achieved its

sixth consecutive year of double-digit volume growth; XYZ Drinks all

grew triple digits.

The Europe Group overcame an uncertain economic environment

to deliver 5% operating income growth and 4% unit case volume

growth. The 130th anniversary of ABC Soda was activated with pas-

sion and creativity, driving brand love on a massive scale. Other mar-

keting highlights included ABC Soda & Meals, driving sales with

imaginative partnerships and cross promotions. We scored with sum-

mer music campaigns and built momentum for the London 2012

Olympic Games. A key strategic success was strengthening ties with

bottling partners and driving growth with key customers. We spent

more time in the marketplace, using the insights to act with greater

flexibility and get closer to consumers with an adapted brand, package,

and price architecture.

In 2011, we continued to execute the strategies of the Bottling

Investments Group. Our core focus on top-line growth and aggressive

cost management, combined with marketplace execution, operational

excellence, and productivity, generated strong performance. We grew

unit case volume 3% on a comparable basis after adjusting for the

impact of the sale of our Norway and Sweden bottling operations.

However, on a reported basis, unit case volume was even with the prior

year. We continued to focus on prudent capital planning to ensure we

have the capacity to meet sales growth. Our focus on improving envi-

ronmental metrics has resulted in signiﬁcant positive changes, espe-

cially in energy and water usage. In addition, we opened more than

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450,000 new outlets, placed an incremental 150,000 new coolers, and

continued building market segmentation capabilities to ensure con-

sumers continue to have access to our brands for all occasions, in the

right packages, at the right price. We remained focused on the imple-

mentation of QRS Colas, our end-to-end bottler operating system that

enables the development of standard tools, data, and systems geared

toward enhancing sales force effectiveness.

243. What business strategies led to the generation of double-digit

volume growth?

a. brand value lead to repeat success while using “old school door-

to-door” advertising

b. longer time spent asking the opinions of longtime consumers

c. strengthening ties with bottling partners and driving growth

with key customers

d. targeting larger areas and other countries

e. aggressive media marketing

244. Based on the information provided, what is the tone of this

passage?

a. factual ambivalence

b. enthusiastic pride

c. objective reporting

d. inconclusiveness

e. critical

245. Which of these situations most resembles the situation described

in this passage?

a. a mutant strain of super ants that recolonizes so efﬁciently that

they become the strongest ants in their habitat, nearly extermi-

nating other species

b. a blockbuster ﬁlm that becomes a miniseries on TV

c. a car dealership that changes its business plan to exclude

imported cars

d. a lamp company formerly specializing in all lighting limiting

itself to chandeliers

e. None of these are true.

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246. Which best describes the basic structure of this passage?

a. comparing different strategies

b. accumulating data to support a conclusion

c. different theories leading to the same conclusion

d. disproving an existing hypothesis

e. compiling facts to sway an opinion

A hedge fund is an investment fund that can undertake a wider range

of investment and trading activities than other funds, but is generally

only open to certain types of investors specified by regulators. These

investors are typically institutions, such as pension funds, university

endowments and foundations, or high-net-worth individuals who are

considered to have the knowledge or resources to understand the

nature of the funds. As a class, hedge funds invest in a diverse range of

assets, but they most commonly trade liquid securities on public mar-

kets. They also employ a wide variety of investment strategies, and

make use of techniques such as short selling and leverage.

Hedge funds are typically open-ended, meaning that investors can

invest and withdraw money at regular, specified intervals. The value of

an investment in a hedge fund is calculated as a share of the fund’s net

asset value, meaning that increases and decreases in the value of the

fund’s investment assets (and fund expenses) are directly reflected in

the amount an investor can later withdraw.

Most hedge fund investment strategies aim to achieve a positive

return on investment whether markets are rising or falling. Hedge

fund managers typically invest their own money in the fund they man-

age, which serves to align their interests with those of investors in the

fund. A hedge fund typically pays its investment manager a manage-

ment fee that is a percentage of the assets of the fund, and a performance

fee if the fund’s net asset value increases during the year. Some hedge

funds have a net asset value of several billion dollars. As of 2009, hedge

funds represented 1.1% of the total funds and assets held by ﬁnancial

institutions. As of April 2012, the estimated size of the global hedge

fund industry was US$2.13 trillion.

Because hedge funds are not sold to the public or retail investors,

the funds and their managers have historically not been subject to the

same restrictions that govern other funds and investment fund

managers with regard to how the fund may be structured and how

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strategies and techniques are employed. Regulations passed in the

United States and Europe after the 2008 credit crisis are intended to

increase government oversight of hedge funds and eliminate certain

regulatory gaps.

247. According to the passage, the relationship between Bank of

America and a hedge fund is most like:

a. an iPad and a plasma television

b. Prospect Park and a private Long Island country club

c. a Mack truck and a motorcycle

d. a state hospital and a chiropractor’s clinic

e. Domino’s Pizza and a local pizzeria

248. According to the information in the passage, which of the

following is NOT true of hedge funds?

a. Withdrawal from hedge funds can be made based on the value

of the fund at the time.

b. The people who manage hedge funds typically invest their own

money, helping to form solidarity with the original investors’

interests.

c. High-net-worth individuals can invest in hedge funds.

d. Hedge funds typically maintain a positive return, unless the

market is doing considerably poorly.

e. The 2008 credit crisis affected the strategies previously

employed by hedge fund specialists.

249. Based on the information in the passage, “liquid securities” most

likely refers to:

a. difﬁcult to access funds, swimming in a sea of paperwork before

they can be accessed

b. stock in alcoholic beverages

c. funds that are easy to trade and don’t change value while chang-

ing hands

d. savings bonds

e. the stock market’s private cache

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250. This passage would best be described as:

a. didactic

b. sententious

c. indignant

d. irreverent

e. detached

251. Based on the information provided in the last paragraph, which of

the following can be reasonably inferred regarding hedge funds?

a. Hedge funds relentlessly manipulate money to their advantage

even when an economic crisis ensues.

b. If hedge funds were made available to the general public, they

wouldn’t be as lucrative based on inexperience.

c. While hedge funds may represent trillions of dollars, other

institutions have a far greater percentage of the world’s capital.

d. Prior to the credit crisis of 2008, hedge funds were likely to be

circumventing regulatory conditions that most others are sub-

ject to.

e. A hedge fund is an unscrupulous means of creating money

among the wealthiest citizens.

The Penelope Royalty Trust is a United States oil and natural gas

royalty trust based in Waco, Texas. With a market capitalization of

US $620,040,000, and an average daily trading volume of about

237,000 shares at the end of 2007, it is one of the largest royalty trusts

in the United States. Its source of revenue is oil and gas pumped from

the geologic formation at the Land of Penelope, as well as a few loca-

tions in other parts of the country.

Most of the trust’s properties are on Jeepers Ranch in Curr County,

Texas, where it owns a 75% net overriding royalty interest in the fee

mineral interests (in this case, oil and natural gas). Other properties of

the trust are in 32 other Texas counties, most of which are in the west-

ern portion of the state, on the High Plains; the trust owns a 95% net

overriding royalty interest in all its properties outside of the Jeepers

Ranch.

The principal productive zones for oil on Jeepers Ranch are in two

geologic units, the Grayburg and the San Andreas, at a depth of from

2,800 to 3,400 feet (1,000 m) below ground surface; however there are

a total of 12 producing zones on the ranch, including one at a depth of

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10,600 feet (3,200 m). As of the end of 2006, there were a total of 620

operational and productive oil wells and 142 natural gas wells on the

Jeepers Ranch in the trust. On December 31, 2006, the trust claimed a

lifetime of approximately 8.3 years for all mineral reserves of the trust.

Penelope Royalty Trust came into being in November 1980, with an

agreement between Brickabrack Royalty Company and the Nations

Star Bank of Fort Worth. As is the case with U.S. royalty trusts, the

trust cannot function as a business, and has no employees; all opera-

tions and maintenance are carried out by the trustee and its subcon-

tractors. Currently, the assets of the trust are managed by Barnaby and

Boom, Inc., which acquired Melenial oil, the previous operator.

The trust pays a relatively high dividend, yielding an annual rate of

12.4% in early 2008; in addition, it pays out monthly, a relative rarity

for U.S. stocks. However, its distribution is dependent on the prices of

oil and gas; thus, unlike traditional stocks (that, when declaring a divi-

dend, usually maintain it at the same amount for each quarter of the

year), the dividend payout will differ each month.

Since the trust’s assets are considered a depletable resource, its divi-

dend payments are not taxed at the regular dividend rate, but rather as

return of capital instead of return on investment; this is an additional

tax advantage in the United States, and applies to all royalty trusts.

252. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the

passage?

a. The principal production zones for oil of Penelope Royalty

Trust are in two different zones.

b. The Texas-based gas trust Penelope Royalty has grown consid-

erably since its 1980 beginning.

c. The Penelope Royalty Trust’s dealings with oil give it the

advantage of different tax laws because its product is considered

a depletable resource.

d. The Jeepers Ranch has turned out to be a very lucrative place

for Penelope Royalty Trust.

e. The land of Penelope is rich with oil and inspired a trust to be

developed; thus, it bears its name.

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253. According to the passage, who currently controls the assets of the

Penelope Royalty Trust?

a. Penelope Royalty Trust

b. Melenial Oil

c. Barnaby and Boom, Inc.

d. Jeepers Ranch

e. Brickabrack Royalty Company and Nations Star Bank

254. What is the author of this passage primarily concerned with?

a. the Penelope Royalty Trust’s contribution to the gas industry

and its proposal to preserve its resources for the future

b. the Penelope Royalty Trust’s history and its current standing in

the economic divisions of energy and ﬁnance

c. the growing crisis of oil depletion, with a renewed sense of hope

because of domestic oil discoveries, speciﬁcally those of the

Penelope Trust

d. the unfair advantage oil producers have regarding tax breaks

e. a depiction of how many companies can be involved in one pri-

mary interest

255. Where does most of the production of oil take place for the

Penelope Royalty Trust?

a. in the High Plains

b. in the western part of Texas

c. at a depth of 10,600 feet

d. at the Grayburg and the San Andreas on Jeepers Ranch

e. at 142 natural gas wells

256. For what purpose does the author include the ﬁfth paragraph?

a. to cite how and why oil and gas differ from other stocks

b. to show the unfair advantages oil companies receive

c. to negate any disdainful opinion of oil companies

d. to explain dividends and returns to laymen

e. to show how odd the U.S. economic system can be

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Answers

Set 7

175. a. The author’s concern is clearly stated: Although antibiotics have

been useful to date, new illnesses have developed that will not be

combated by this treatment approach. The author never implies

that funding be given to third world countries, therefore the

answer is not choice b. It is never implied that staph and MRSA

should be listed as deadly diseases, therefore choice c is incorrect.

Sexually transmitted diseases are not the main concern of the

author, so the answer is not choice d. It is not implied that fees will

be lowered for patients in spite of having to pay more, so the

answer is not choice e.

176. c. The main idea of the passage is stated after the word however, a

usually telling transitional word. “However, these drugs have been

used so widely and for so long that the infectious organisms the

antibiotics are designed to kill have adapted to them, making the

drugs less effective.” The fact that drug-resistant infections are

becoming more problematic is a supporting idea, so choice a is

incorrect. There is no implication that an epidemic will ensue, so

the answer is not choice b. The development of antibiotics has not

been neglected, so choice d is incorrect. Choice e is not true

according to the passage.

177. c. The antibiotics used to work to combat illness, but have lost

their efﬁciency as the illnesses have adapted to their defenses, just

as a moat may have been effective to protect a kingdom until

enemies found a way to get across the water. A superhero losing

any power wouldn’t speak to the evil attacking it or why it needed

to be invisible to begin with, so choice a is incorrect. Choice b is

incorrect because a cucumber in a salt solution becoming a pickle

is similar to viruses changing, but doesn’t resemble this situation as

there is no parallel to the antibiotics stagnation. Two pies of

different ﬂavors in a bake-off isn’t anything like the antibiotics

situation, and neither is buying tickets to a show anywhere, so

choices d and e are incorrect.

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178. c. The ﬁrst three lines of the passage state already accepted,

studied, and proven information. The fourth line introduces new

ﬁndings on the subject, suggesting a rebuttal of the previously

widely believed information. The author isn’t reporting data that

matches what has already been stated, therefore choice a is

incorrect. Choice b is incorrect because the passage does not

compare two different ideas. The initial information given is not

an idea but proven material. There is nothing so drastic as

vehemence suggested in the passage, and the author doesn’t seem

to be begging for the reader’s compassion, so choices d and e are

incorrect.

179. a. As infectious organisms evolve, a wider variety of drugs will have

to be used if the ﬁrst treatment prescribed isn’t effective. This can

be costly, and second choice drugs will have to be used as an option

as well, as stated in the last paragraph. Hospitals may incur higher

fees, but it is never suggested there is anything beneﬁcial about this

study, so choice b is incorrect. The passage states that not only

industrialized nations will feel the brunt of this development,

contrary to choice c. It is never suggested that antibiotics weren’t

taken as prescribed, so choice d is incorrect. It is never stated that

an increase in STDs is expected, just that they are in fact drug-

resistant infections that could spread in the community at large, so

choice e is incorrect.

180. c. Admonishing is deﬁned as warning or cautioning, which is

suggestive of the author’s intent. The drug’s previous successes are

mentioned, but the passage suggests that further study is needed or

there could be potentially hazardous consequences such as a rise in

illness and the upset of inﬂated drugs. The author is somewhat

critical (choice a) of the current usefulness of antibiotics, but isn’t

critical as a whole against any speciﬁc institution, only suggestive

that further action is required. The author’s tone is not sarcastic

(choice b) at all. The adjectives in choices d and e suggest

emotional response, which the author does not imply.

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181. d. The author cites the beneﬁts and leaping bounds science has

been able to make since the discovery. The tone of the article is

one of excitement, using adjectives such as “tremendous” and

citing examples of its efﬁcacy. Ambivalence is contrary to the tone,

so choice a is incorrect. The answer is not choice b because the

author doesn’t criticize anything but rather supports the ﬁndings.

The answer is not choice c; although the author seems to be

defending the legitimacy of the use of biotechnology, it is never

suggested that anyone else has attacked it. Objectivity (choice e)

would imply that no emotion is involved in the ﬁndings, and the

author has a clear interest in the further development of

biotechnology.

182. b. The last line in the last paragraph cites nonspeciﬁc examples of

where genetic engineering has been used with beneﬁt. It is implied

that the author will continue to articulate the strides made with the

use of genetic engineering by more speciﬁcally citing its

contribution. The answer is not choice a. The reference made to

mating a cow and a horse was made to cite an example of what

couldn’t work prior to new scientiﬁc ﬁndings. There is never

implication that a cow and a horse should swap DNA for any

reason. Although reference can be made eventually to the

advancements made in 1972, this segue would be clumsy if made

here, and therefore choice c is incorrect. The answer is not choice

d. There is never any reference to opponents of biotechnology.

The answer is not choice e. There is never any additional implied

link between beer and pharmaceuticals.

183. b. The end of the ﬁfth paragraph states, “An organism modiﬁed by

genetic engineering is called transgenic.” Although any individual

may have the opinion that DNA swapping is an abomination, it’s

not called that technically, so choice a is incorrect. The answer is

not choice c. It is stated that manipulating the DNA between these

two animals of the same breed has been possible for years.

Although it is a manipulation, this is not what it is deﬁnitively

called, so choice d is incorrect. This is not what transference

means, so choice e is incorrect.

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184. d. Transgenic plants are both a product of and an example of

biotechnology just as opiate abuse could be the product of

addiction and an example of a speciﬁc addiction. None of the other

relationships between the things listed share the same kind of

relationship.

185. d. The passage references transmitting DNA through viruses, yet

never suggests using the viruses in an act of war or as a weapon. All

of the rest of the answers are mentioned in the passage as examples

of biotechnology.

186. c. The passage explores the uses of biotechnology since inception,

which predates its study, up until its present, and how more recent

ﬁndings continue to broaden the horizon of its advantages. Choice

a is certainly a supporting idea of the passage, but would not

qualify as the main idea. The answer is not choice b since the

beneﬁts of biotechnology are documented throughout the passage.

The author clearly supports the continuance of this study, and

never mentions risks or concerns, therefore choice d is incorrect.

Choice e could also be inferred as true, but is a less signiﬁcant

point of the passage.

187. c. This statement would best describe the main idea of this

passage. Alcohol negates the beneﬁts of the polyphenols that

decrease blood pressure. Its other effects aren’t discussed;

therefore, choice a is incorrect. There is no correlation made

between alcoholics and strokes, so choice b is incorrect.

Polyphenols are the antioxidant known to decrease blood pressure,

so choice d is incorrect. Gin may not decrease blood pressure, but

whether drinking it is useless is subjective, so choice e is incorrect.

188. d. The passage states that drinking nonalcoholic red wine can

potentially reduce the risk of heart disease by 14% and stroke by as

much as 20%. All of the other answer choices are contrary to the

facts given in the passage.

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189. c. It is implied that men with diabetes are at higher risk to develop

heart disease than the average male. Choice a is a complete

fabrication, so it is therefore incorrect. It is never stated or

understated that men will respond poorly to nitric oxide, so choice

b is incorrect. No physiological reaction is ever reported, so choice

d is incorrect. There is no evidence in the passage to support

choice e.

190. c. The study discussed in the passage was based on proving that

the removal of alcohol from red wine would yield greater results.

Neither choice a or b was implied at any point in the passage.

Choices d and e were both stated at one point, but could not be

concluded as the main idea as they weren’t discussed enough to

qualify as main ideas.

191. d. The offered data supports the conclusion of the study, unlike

choice a, which states that data is being introduced. This is

incorrect because the study has already been described and

therefore isn’t being introduced. Choice b is incorrect because

there isn’t a counterpoint. Choice c is incorrect because there

aren’t any outside sources being accessed. The paragraph produces

facts from a study, not opinions, making choice e incorrect.

192. b. Lactose-free milk will have started out as whole milk before the

lactose was removed from it, just like nonalcoholic red wine would

have alcohol in it until removed. A Labradoodle is genetically

engineered from a Labrador retriever’s DNA, but the dog can’t be

a Labrador ﬁrst and then a Labradoodle. Granny Smith and Fuji

apples are two different kinds, but they are never the same

product. A gas oven and a microwave are just two different kinds of

ovens, not at all the same relationship, and the same goes for the

Big Wheel and a bicycle.

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193. e. The author concedes that the treatment looks positive and could

make incredible strides for the treatment of Alzheimer’s. However,

this article points out inconsistencies in the ﬁndings of the report

versus the articles being printed about it. The article points out

that the treatment may not be available for 10 years, so choice a is

incorrect. While the author remains skeptical about the

advancement, there have been legitimate ﬁndings that would

render the drug credible. Therefore, choice b is incorrect. The

answer is not choice c since the drug is to be administered

intravenously. The title in choice d does not match any of the

information in the article, so it is incorrect.

194. a. The author reports that although the drug is being researched,

the research is in its early stages, and since it hasn’t been peer

reviewed, it can hardly be justiﬁed. The answer is not choice b.

The author has too much of an opinion to be considered

ambivalent or choice c, stoic. Enthusiasm generally denotes

positivity, and if the author is enthusiastic at all it is to criticize, so

choice d is incorrect. Whether the author seems cantankerous has

no bearing on the passage, so choice e is incorrect.

195. c. In the fourth paragraph the author states that although a news

source called it one, a vaccine would technically only be

administered once, and this drug will need to be delivered every

two weeks. The drug will be administered by injection, so choice a

is incorrect. The answer is not choice b. The author reports that

IVIG will encourage the immune system to ﬁght proteins in the

brain of Alzheimer’s patients. The answer is not choice d. The

author reports that IVIG may not be available for 10 or more

years. The answer is not choice e. The author states that IVIG

may be expensive to manufacture.

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196. c. The ﬁrst two paragraphs present the background information

about the drug, but the fourth paragraph introduces the point the

author was trying to make by writing it. Until now there has been

no mention of misleading information. Yet from now until the end

of the article, the author cites ways in which the media presented

false or misleading information regarding the drug’s legitimacy.

The author argues that the media acted with haste to publish the

medical ﬁeld’s ﬁndings, but is not arguing a point presented by

anyone who made such ﬁndings, so choice a is incorrect. The

fourth paragraph is contrary to objectivity, so choice b is incorrect.

The study isn’t being denounced, it is only suggested that it needs

more research before a conclusion can be reached, so choice d is

incorrect. This paragraph does not compare the opinions of

medical professionals, so choice e is incorrect.

197. a. The author acknowledges that medical advances have been

made regarding the treatment of Alzheimer’s, but shows disdain

for the media’s inaccurate and premature conclusions. The

advancements are surely exciting, but when IVIG will be available

is unknown. Although the author states that more research is

needed regarding IVIG, there is never any mention of testing on

mice, so choice b is incorrect. The answer is not choice c. There is

never mention of coercing abnormal clumps rather than attacking

them. The answer is not choice d. The author never suggests why

the media presented misleading information, but only that it was

done. The author hasn’t made reference to a national healthcare

system, so choice e is incorrect.

198. e. All the other choices are foodborne illnesses or conditions that

will lead to a foodborne illness.

199. b. The passage is about the development and implementation of

SERS, how it works, where it will work, and how that will affect

tracking foodborne illness. This is clearly the main idea. The facts

regarding colloidal metals is a supporting idea of this passage, not

the main idea, rendering choice a incorrect. Choices c and d are

both supporting ideas as well, so they are both incorrect. There is

no evidence to back choice e, so it is incorrect.

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200. c. The sixth paragraph states that a specimen will be placed on this

enhanced surface, a nanosubstrate. According to the passage, a

nanosubstrate is not a laser beam, so choice a is incorrect. The

surface can be enhanced by tiny spheres of colloidal metal, but

that’s not a deﬁning characteristic, making choice b incorrect. A

nanosubstrate is not described as the scattering of light, so choice

d is incorrect. A nanosubstrate is not a foodborne pathogen, so

choice e is incorrect.

201. c. The surface in the passage is described as changing from smooth

to rough, just as the surface of a knee would change from smooth

to rough while it was scabbing over and healing. A stripped screw

would be an example of a surface changing its shape, but not from

smooth to rough, so choice a is incorrect. Peaches and apples are

different fruits with different surfaces, unlike the one surface that

changes, making choice b incorrect. A cat’s reaction to a laser has

nothing to do with the enhanced surface, so choice d is incorrect.

An old tire’s tread would go from grooved to smooth, so choice e

is incorrect.

202. d. Including how many people are affected by salmonella in the

United States yearly further emphasizes how useful the

development of the SERS will be after its completion. The author

never criticizes the work of any institution, so choice a is incorrect.

The author clearly supports the SERS project, but the second

paragraph does not mention Parks’ research, so choice b is

incorrect. The second paragraph does call attention to the

problems salmonella creates, but its purpose is beneath the surface

of the obvious, so choice c is incorrect. The second paragraph does

not contain the main idea of the article, so choice e is incorrect.

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Set 8

203. c. The government and afﬁliates of the island wanted to keep the

number of health epidemics low by expanding the hospital grounds

to accommodate ailing immigrants, as well as those scheduled for

deportation. There was no mention of segregation in the passage,

so choice a is incorrect. Immigrants were not forced to build any

new buildings in order to be admitted into the United States, so

choice b is incorrect. There was no speciﬁc evidence in the passage

to support the statement of choice d. The ﬁre did not do enough

damage to warrant the demolition to the entire island, so choice e

is incorrect.

204. e. When the government assumed responsibility of the island, the

welfare of the people entering the country also became their

charge. The architecture ﬁrm was hired to build because of the

overﬂow, not for aesthetics, so choice a is incorrect. There was no

mention of anyone being forced to work for entry, so choice b is

incorrect. Neither literacy nor age discrimination was mentioned

in the passage, so choices c and d are also incorrect.

205. d. The fact that houses were constructed of Georgia pine becomes

relevant when the information is presented that a ﬁre destroyed all

the buildings, and the subsequent necessity to rebuild with ﬁre-safe

materials. Choice a does not help to further the passage

structurally, as relevant as the information is. Inclusion of the

economy’s impact on immigration isn’t brought up until paragraph

3, so choice b is incorrect. Choices c and e are both true and a part

of paragraph 2, but the facts stand alone.

206. d. This passage is told completely from a historical point of view

free of opinion and bias. Choice d is the only choice that

eliminates opinion and is true. The author never insinuates that

the buildings were built with shoddy materials, so choice a is

incorrect. The author never inserts advice on what would have

been better, so choice b is incorrect. The depression is never given

credit for the island’s initial emptiness, so choice c is incorrect.

The author never implies that the spirit of competition aided the

island’s structural integrity, so choice e is incorrect.

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207. d. The third landﬁll would be the last landﬁll mentioned, and

directly following it the contagious disease ward was constructed.

All the other choices were constructed before the last landﬁll was

completed.

208. e. The answer includes both the enactment of anti-immigration

legislation and the Great Depression, so choice e, none of these

are accurate, is correct. Choices c and d were not mentioned as

factors for the decreased numbers.

209. a. Limited percentages of each nationality were allowed in order to

curb the ﬂow of immigration to the United States. Criminal

activity was never linked to the enforcement of quota, so choice b

is incorrect. The numbers were reduced, but not completely

stopped during the Great Depression; choice c is incorrect. The

percentages were either 2% or 3%, not 1%, so choice d is

incorrect. There was never any mention of panic on the island as

choice e would indicate.

210. d. Informative best matches the author’s tone. This passage

presents from a historical vantage point, refraining from

interjection of opinion or emotion. Restrained would insinuate the

holding back of emotion, which was not found. Nostalgic also

implies an emotional response to the past, which is not present.

Inﬂammatory does not describe the tone; there is no presence of

anger or opinion. Contemptuous is incorrect as well, as it too

suggests the show of emotion.

211. b. The act would restrict immigrants to 2% of their nationality

currently living in the United States. The passage continues to

inform that more than 50% of the immigrants were from southern

and eastern Europe; Greece is in Southeast Europe. The Ellis

Island Advisory Committee would not be gravely affected by the

1924 act. Citizens of Great Britain are in northern Europe, so they

would have had a greater chance to immigrate. The Lower East

Side of New York City is never mentioned in the passage.

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212. b. The fourth paragraph provides a summation of the other three

paragraphs and includes some outcomes of said information, so

choice b is the most logical answer. There is no theorizing evident,

so choice a is incorrect. No argument or counterpoint is ever

addressed, making choices c, d, and e incorrect.

213. a. Although the author never states an opinion, the enthusiasm

about the scientists’ ﬁndings can only be regarded as passionate.

Nowhere in the passage does the tone reﬂect despondency, making

choice b incorrect. Articulation is not an adjective describing tone,

making choice c incorrect. The article is not opinionated and the

tone is not arrogant, making choices d and e incorrect.

214. c. The Massachusetts Institute of Technology commented on the

study, but was not directly involved in it. The study was conducted

at the Helen Wills Neuroscience Institute located at the University

of California at Berkeley, making choices a and b incorrect. Both

the U.S. Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke and

Blueprint Test Preparation funded the study, making choices d and

e incorrect.

215. d. The third paragraph is a good paraphrase of the ﬁrst paragraph,

both of which could be seen as the hypothesis, so the answer

cannot be choice e. Choice a is incorrect because no cumulative

data is presented in paragraph 3. The third paragraph does not

present an argument, making choice b incorrect. Two different

theories are not being presented here, only one, making choice c

incorrect.

216. b. This point is made in two different statements that can be

joined. Choice a is not the answer because there is no such insight.

The passage states that people are born with reason and that it can

be developed, so choice c is incorrect. The test in question is the

LSAT, but is never mentioned that only lawyers can beneﬁt from

reasoning training, so choice d is incorrect. Choice e is just not

true.

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217. a. The main idea of the passage is mentioned in the ﬁrst paragraph,

and then reiterated and paraphrased in the third paragraph, “that

training people in reasoning skills can reinforce brain circuits

involved in thinking and reasoning and might even help increase a

person’s IQ scores.” There is no mention of why the U.S. National

Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke funded the study,

rendering choice b incorrect. Although practicing for the LSAT is

stated to change the brain, it never says it will do so chemically,

making choice c false. The passage states that preparedness can

NOT predict your future success, making choice d incorrect. The

statement in choice e may be true, but it is sure to be subjective for

each individual and would not be labeled as a main idea.

218. d. The last paragraph states “that intensive, real-life educational

experience that trains reasoning also alters the brain pathways that

support reasoning ability.” It is stated that improving on the LSAT

after preparation is not a new idea, making choice a true. The

statement of choice b is mentioned in the third to last paragraph.

The passage states that brain function speciﬁc to reasoning is

plastic, or malleable, through adulthood, so choice c is true. It is

stated in the passage that among other things, the LSAT is

reasoning training, making choice e true.

219. c. The ﬁrst line of the second paragraph states that the report the

passage concerns urges changes be made to our healthcare system

to lower cost while improving healthcare quality. The

advancement of technology is a supporting idea, but isn’t

mentioned enough to be the primary concern. An increase in pain

and suffering is an outcome of the main idea. A poorly

appropriated budget is also a supporting idea, as is the inevitable

decline of healthcare for various reasons.

220. a. Gradual upgrades and changes are cited as inadequate and part

of the problem. Choice b is incorrect; it is suggested that a

learning system be implemented. The seventh paragraph

references encouraging family involvement in patient care, so

choice c is incorrect. The second-to-last paragraph suggests that

we already have the know-how and technology, so choice d is

incorrect. The eighth paragraph states the intent of electronic

health records, so choice e is incorrect.

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221. b. The passage provides examples of a number of human errors

involved in the healthcare system, such as fraud, excessive cost, and

unnecessary spending. A diligent recommitment by people

involved is recommended to ﬁx the healthcare system. Neither

Obamacare nor a universal healthcare system is ever mentioned,

rendering choices a and c incorrect. The United States ranking

among worldwide healthcare systems is never mentioned, so

choice d is incorrect. Insurance companies are arguably part of the

problem, but the conclusion in choice e cannot be drawn with no

reference to them.

222. b. The author cites what is wrong with the state of the current

healthcare system and what could be done to ﬁx it. Whether the

author is irrational would be an opinion of the material presented,

but not the author’s voice. The passage draws too many references

to fault, rendering it very partial. There is no information to

support a moral platform. The passage refrains from both mocking

sneering, never intonating sardonicism.

223. e. All Americans are affected by the healthcare system provided

they live in the country. Therefore, it could not be limited to any

of the other choices, as it would be all-inclusive.

224. c. The author reports the Institute of Medicine ﬁndings after

much research in the ﬁrst half of the passage and then delivers the

possible solutions in the second half. There is no counterpoint, so

the answer is not choice a. The Institute of Medicine isn’t

presenting a hypothesis, making choice b incorrect. There isn’t a

comparison being drawn, so choice d is incorrect. Attacking

denotes violence, an emotional response far more drastic than this

passage ever suggests, rendering choice e incorrect.

225. c. The passage reports that smoking is becoming a “downscale

social activity.” The homeless are the only answer here that would

be speciﬁc to downscale and social. Neither senior citizens nor

adolescent children were mentioned as a target. The afﬂuent were

mentioned as a group likely to quit smoking right now, and actors

weren’t mentioned at all.

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226. d. The passage states “Cigarette companies thus increasingly

marketed toward lower-income, less educated, and minority

segments of the U.S. population.” Distribution of blankets is one

of the marketing tools employed. The tobacco industry did not

seek better public opinion, so choice a is incorrect. Although the

industry may have been thanking the homeless for doing their part

to keep them in business, this wasn’t the motivation, so choice b is

incorrect. There is no mention of seeking compassion from

anyone, so choice c is incorrect. The author does not imply that

seeking to be seen as charitable is any sort of motivation, so choice

e is incorrect.

227. c. A tobacco industry representative stated that this demographic

would be more susceptible to marketing and therefore more easily

moldable or pliable to suit the needs of the company. The tobacco

industry wouldn’t beneﬁt from a breakable new demographic; a

stubborn, or refractory, demographic wouldn’t be ideal so choices a

and b are incorrect. The answer is not choice d because it would

not make any sense. The answer is not choice e. Intractable is

synonymous with stubborn, so again, this wouldn’t be ideal.

228. c. The passage cites several examples of the ways in which the

tobacco industry has targeted homeless people as its most likely

demographic to continue smoking. The answer is not choice a

because giving out cigarettes is just one example of how the

marketing is done, and not the central point of the passage. Choice

b is also a supporting idea, as the afﬂuent are only mentioned once

in the beginning of the passage. There is no evidence to support

the insinuation of choice d. Choice e is incorrect because it is an

opinion, and although this may be the opinion of the author, it is

not stated.

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229. b. The passage delivers the information, but there is deﬁnitely a

critical attitude toward the tobacco industry. Pointing out all the

industry’s dirty tricks without using angry adjectives keeps the tone

at critical rather than angry. The answer is not choice a because

the author is not objective, nor is it choice c because although it is

somber it is not impartial. There is never an indication that the

author is holding back anything, so choice d is incorrect. Cold

anger (choice e) would be too harsh a description for this article.

230. c. The author is bringing to light the unethical tactics of the

tobacco industry, making an anti-tobacco movement the most

likely of all the answers. The answer would not be choice a as R.J.

Reynolds is a tobacco company, and such crude evidence wouldn’t

be offered from within. Choice b is a completely arbitrary choice.

Although the author could be involved with the board of health,

this passage concentrates on smoking rather than a full spectrum of

health issues, making c rather than d the better choice. It is never

implied that the author is in league with a homeless activist group,

so choice e is incorrect.

Set 9

231. a. The passage states that the scientists observed that the leaves in

the transgenic switchgrass are not nearly as stiff. The answer is not

choice b because it is noted that the modiﬁed plant will not

produce seeds. It is noted that the plants will not have a dormant

growth phase, so choice c is incorrect. In the second paragraph, it

is said that the modiﬁed plant will not be able to ﬂower, so choice

d is incorrect. The answer is not choice e. In the third paragraph,

it is said the modiﬁed plant will have 250% more starch, and as a

result will yield more sugar.

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232. b. The end of the fourth paragraph states that “the work supports

the USDA priority of developing new sources of bioenergy.”

Choice a is incorrect because the passage never suggests anything

about the cessation of corn production. Choice c is incorrect; it is

stated only that the plant lignin will be different; if anything, it can

be inferred that it may be weaker. Choice d is incorrect because

researchers are introducing new DNA segments, not the plant.

Nowhere in the passage is any kind of dispute mentioned between

the Department of Agriculture and the Plant Gene Expression

Center, so choice e is incorrect.

233. d. The passage delivers the facts of the study thus far and

highlights the hopes of the scientists involved. Choice a is

incorrect because there is no criticism to be found in this passage.

There is no comparison in this passage, so choice b is incorrect.

The passage reports the ﬁnding of a study in progress, so choice c

is incorrect. Coice e is incorrect because nothing is eliminated.

234. d. The ﬁrst line of the fourth paragraph states that Hake is the

director of the Plant Gene Expression Center. The center is a part

of the ARS, but it never stated that she is the director of it. She

may be leading the corngrass study as well, but this is also never

stated. It is never mentioned that she has anything to do with the

Department of Agriculture.

235. c. The manufacturers of cars that run on alternative energy would

be the most interested to hear the ﬁndings of the study since their

product relies on the continual growth of biofuels. Corn farmers

will probably not be planting very many genetically engineered

plants, and will likely stick to corn. Switchgrass and popcorn have

no relationship to each other, therefore Orville Redenbacher will

probably not have very much interest. Although the president may

ﬁnd the data fascinating, its results certainly won’t further any of

his more pressing agendas. DNA specialists will also be interested

in the ﬁndings, but not as much as people dependent on

switchgrass production for their products to be useful.

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236. d. The researchers express enthusiasm for the development of the

study because its production could have a multitude of positive

effects for developing products. There is no mention in the

passage of the USDA dropping the ball on the development of

biofuels, making choice a incorrect. Nowhere in the passage is the

attitude of American society toward genetically engineered

products implied. Choices b and c can be tricky since they are both

ideas taken from pop culture, but not from the information

provided in the passage. Choice e is incorrect because there is no

evidence that the cross-pollination of switchgrass could lead to

devastating effects.

237. d. This statement is made once in the ﬁrst paragraph, as the ﬁrst

line of the passage, and then again in the second paragraph.

Although data was collected to suggest the earth’s weather patterns

are getting warmer, it is not the central idea of the passage, so

choice a is incorrect. There is no speciﬁc citation of the efﬁciency

of coal versus natural gas, so choice b is incorrect. The Northeast

and Midwest are only mentioned once in the passage, so choice c

is incorrect. There is no reference to the depletion of energy

sources, so choice e is incorrect.

238. b. The author states in the ﬁrst paragraph that Bentek Energy has

been estimating power burn since January 2005. There is no

alliance mentioned between the National Oceanic and

Atmospheric Administration and Bentek Energy, so choice a is

incorrect. It is never implied that Bentek Energy created new gas

units as choice c would indicate, so it’s incorrect. The answer is not

choice d because no playing ﬁeld is mentioned. There is also no

mention of an agenda to raise public awareness, so choice e is

incorrect.

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239. c. The two points made regarding the use of natural gas are

symbiotic. It can be reasonably inferred that if the weather

continues to get warmer, the use of energy-gobbling air

conditioning will continue to rise. There is no tone of impending

doom with looming extinction articulated, so choice a is incorrect.

There is no reference to a dwindling gas resource, so there is no

need to assume how much energy there is from the facts in this

article, so choice b is incorrect. Although the West’s weather

conditions are mentioned to have changed the least, this cannot be

inferred as being favorable since this is a subjective matter, so

choice d is incorrect. Based on the information in the passage,

there is no reason to conclude that there will be an increase in

devastating storms, so choice e is incorrect.

240. b. This sentence reiterates the central idea of the passage. The

passage never presents an argument, so choice a is incorrect. A

new point of view is never presented, so choice c is incorrect.

Choice d is incorrect since the author writes with objectivity,

presenting data that’s been collected. There is no way to tell what

would be of most interest to him. There is never an intimation of

hope in the passage, so choice e is incorrect.

241. d. The author cites from a complimentary standpoint the effects of

weather and other variables on the use of natural gas, and noting

that old, less effective agents are being replaced implies the author

views natural gas in a favorable light. Whereas the author seems to

be positive, he never comes off as dreamy, so choice a is incorrect.

The author’s tone is slightly biased, ruling out objective (choice b)

as the correct answer. The passage provides facts to back the

ﬁndings, so the tone cannot be hollow (choice c). The passage is far

from elegiac, which would be lamenting or sad, so choice e is

incorrect.

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242. c. The movie rental store and streaming video are both vessels that

supply the consumer with access to movies. Renting movies was a

primary way of watching releases at home for a long time. Like

natural gases, as streaming video gained popularity, numbers of

movie rental stores began to dwindle, with huge franchises going

out of business due to a lack of demand, just as coal will. A

chandelier and a table lamp are both sources of light, but the

relationship doesn’t resemble that between coal and natural gas. A

kick drum and a drum machine are two forms of percussion, and

one is new and the other is old, but the drum machine will not

replace the kick drum. An electrical outlet and a generator are two

different sources of power. A bicycle and a skateboard are two

modes of transportation, but one is not likely to replace the other.

243. c. Choice a is incorrect because it was not only brand value, but

the translation into customer value that led to strengthening the

system capabilities leading to repeat success. Although consumers

were targeted through promotions and other programs, the

passage does not mention formal opinion surveys of consumers,

making choice b incorrect. Choice c is the correct answer, making

choices d and e incorrect.

244. b. This passage is written from the ﬁrst-person perspective

boasting the company’s successes and ambitions. Choice b is the

only available option. Choice a is incorrect because although this

claims to be a factual report, it is by no means ambivalent. Choice

c is incorrect because a ﬁrst-person account is hardly ever anything

but subjective. There is no hypothesis present and nothing to

conclude, so choice d is incorrect. Choice e is incorrect because

there is no trace of criticism.

245. a. Just as XYZ Cola did, the mutant ants become the strongest

most capable ants in their species. XYZ leveled the competition.

Choice b is incorrect because a blockbuster ﬁlm is much larger

than a miniseries, which is generally less successful. Choice c is

incorrect because we read that ABC Soda has expanded to include

other types of beverages; choice d is incorrect for the same reason.

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246. b. The passage seeks to show the accomplishments of the company

over time, relating all its feats. There were no comparisons noted,

so choice a is incorrect. There weren’t different theories presented,

so choice c is incorrect. No hypothesis is ever noted, so choice d is

incorrect. The compiling of facts is presented factually without an

intonation of persuasion, so choice e is incorrect.

247. b. Prospect Park is a large public park and Bank of America is a

large bank open to anyone who qualiﬁes; a private country club is

also a park but only members are allowed in to use it, just as a

hedge fund is a form of a bank but is not open to the general

public. An iPad and a plasma television have no relationship to

each other aside from both having the capability to play motion

pictures, so choice a is incorrect. A motorcycle and a Mack truck

are two forms of transportation, but their relationship does not

resemble the one in question, so choice c is incorrect. A state

hospital and a chiropractor’s clinic would both treat any patient, so

choice d is incorrect. The two pizza places have no relationship to

each other except for making pizza, so choice e is incorrect.

248. d. The ﬁrst line of the third paragraph states that hedge funds will

typically always maintain a positive return regardless of how the

market is doing. The second paragraph justiﬁes choice a. The

second line of paragraph three proves choice b to be true. The ﬁrst

paragraph states that high net individuals can invest in hedge

funds, so choice c is true. The last paragraph states that the credit

crisis of 2008 affected hedge fund strategies, so choice e is

incorrect.

249. c. Based on the information provided in the passage, it can be

easily inferred that hedge funds are designed by capitalists and

economists to beneﬁt those at the top of the ﬁnance food chain,

insinuating that those involved would reap the most beneﬁt. If the

hedge funds lost money per transaction and were difﬁcult to

access, this wouldn’t beneﬁt those involved with the fund, and

high-net-worth people and institutions would not have so much of

an interest in being involved with it, making choice a incorrect.

There is never any mention of alcohol, so choice b is incorrect.

There is never any mention of savings bonds, so choice d is

incorrect. There is no evidence to support choice e.

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250. a. Didactic is deﬁned as designed or intended to teach. Choice b,

sententious, would also regard teaching, but from a moralistic

standpoint, which this passage lacks. The author speaks from an

objective standpoint, so none of the other answer choices would be

possible, including detached, because in order for one to detach,

there is an implication of a previous attachment.

251. d. The last paragraph states that after the crisis of 2008, hedge

funds were regulated more, implying that prior to that, without

supervision, liberties were taken. Choice a is a similar statement

with far too negative a connotation. There is no evidence to

support choice b. It is stated that hedge funds represent 1.1% of

the total funds, but it is not implied who has the rest of the funds,

so choice c is incorrect. Choice e is slanted and opinionated, so it

is incorrect.

252. b. This is the only answer that supports all the other ideas in the

passage. All the other answer choices are true, but they cannot

envelop the other points mentioned in the passage.

253. c. The fourth paragraph states that Barnaby and Boom, Inc.

currently controls the company’s assets. All the other options are

incorrect based on this statement.

254. b. The passage is written objectively and, over the course of the

material, details the facts surrounding the business of the Penelope

Royalty Trust. The passage never mentions the preservation of

resources, so choice a is incorrect. There is no evidence to support

an interest in possible oil depletion, so choice c is incorrect. Tax

breaks are mentioned without an indication of subjectivity, so

choice d is incorrect. The number of companies involved with

Penelope Royalty Trust is an arbitrary fact, so choice e is incorrect.

255. d. The ﬁrst line of the third paragraph states that the principal

productive wells on Jeepers Ranch are at these two geologic units,

and it is previously revealed that Jeepers Ranch is the chief

producer for oil for the trust. This makes all the other choices

incorrect.

297

501 GMAT

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256. a. The ﬁfth paragraph breaks down why oil and gas stocks differ

from others and why they would pay out at a different rate. Choice

b is incorrect because there is no hint of criticism noted in the

author’s tone. Choice c is incorrect for the same reason. Choice d

is incorrect because it isn’t implied that the author doesn’t already

know what the stock differences are. Choice e is incorrect because

this opinion is not stated.

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lank Page

SECTION 3

GMAT Integrated

Reasoning Section

In today’s business world, you will often be tasked with making

sound decisions, determining patterns, and using both verbal and quanti-

tative skills to solve problems. The GMAT integrated reasoning section

measures these skills.

The integrated reasoning section is composed of four different question

formats. These questions are intended to test your ability to problem solve

when given an array of different types of data—a skill necessary in today’s

business world.

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Blank Page

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Graphics

Interpretation

Graphics interpretation questions are one question type you’ll

see in the integrated reasoning section of the GMAT. With graphics inter-

pretation questions, you will be asked to analyze a graphic and use the

graphic to make well-reasoned deductions. Some of the graphics you will

ﬁnd are Venn diagrams, line graphs, bar graphs, scatterplots, and scien-

tiﬁc diagrams. With each graphics interpretation question, you will be

asked to correctly ﬁll in the blank of two statements using drop-down

menus. The correct answers are deductions best supported by the details

in the graphics.

Test-Taking Tips

When working on the graphics interpretation questions of the GMAT,

there are a few techniques to keep in mind that can help you improve your

score. Practice using the following techniques when answering the graph-

ics interpretation questions in this book.

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How Should I Work on Graphics Interpretation Questions?

■

Begin by reading the question and the graphic carefully.

Be sure to read both of the statements you will need to

complete—this will help you know what information to look

for in the graphic.

■

Read all the answer choices in the drop-down menus.

Reading the answer choices will help you know the type of

information you need to ﬁnd in the graphic. Additionally,

reading the answer choices will help you know the degree of

speciﬁcity the answers need to be in. For example, a question

may ask you about the slope of a graphed line. Yet the question

is not asking you to calculate the slope; the question may

simply be asking you to determine whether the slope is positive

or negative.

■

Eliminate any clearly incorrect answer choices.

You may be able to spot a clearly incorrect answer immediately

once you’ve seen the answer choices provided. If so, focus on

the remaining answer choices.

What Do I Do If I Don’t Know the Answer?

■

Try to make an educated guess.

Use the information you know and understand to choose the

best answer that you can.

■

Do not skip the question unless you are sure you do not know

the answer.

With the computerized GMAT, you will be unable to return to

the question later.

■

Make sure you understand the question and the graphic.

Take a moment to reread the statements and to review the

graphic. You may have misunderstood the question or missed a

key word (such as “not” or “only”). Once you are sure you

clearly understand what the question is asking, try to answer it

again.

■

Give yourself another minute or two to answer the question,

but do not take too long.

You want to be sure to answer the question correctly. But you

also want to have enough time to answer all the questions on

the test. So be sure to keep a calm, even pace as you work on

the question. And try to avoid wasting time

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General GMAT Tips and Techniques

■

Use scrap paper.

Scrap paper is a key tool on the GMAT. You can write down

answer choices that you’ve eliminated. You can also write down

key pieces of information from the questions and the graphics.

Also, be sure to do any calculations on graph paper instead of

in your head in order to avoid careless mistakes.

■

Pace yourself.

Give yourself enough time to read and comprehend the

question, but be conscientious about your time. Managing

your time wisely will help you have enough time to ﬁnish the

test—or complete as many questions as possible.

■

Be sure you have everything you need before you begin the

test.

Be sure you have pencils, paper, and anything else you need

before beginning the test.

■

Try to answer all the questions on the test.

Answering all the questions on the test is a way to shoot for a

higher score. Of course, you may encounter questions you do

not know how to answer. While you do not want to wildly

guess at the answers, you do want to try to make educated

guesses. Even if you can eliminate one answer choice as

incorrect, you have improved your chances of picking the

correct answer for that question. So try to answer all the

questions, or as many questions as possible.

Set 10

Now it is time to answer GMAT graphics interpretation practice questions

that have been designed to test your integrated reasoning skills. Good luck!

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257.

Earns $50,000

No college

a year or more

degree

= 10 adults

304

501 GMAT

Questions

Refer to the pictograph of a survey of adults. Each symbol

represents 10 adults in a survey of 250 total adults. Complete each

statement according to the information presented in the diagram.

If one adult is randomly selected from the 250 surveyed, the

chance that the adult will make less than $50,000 a year or have a

college degree or both is:

a. 1 out of 5

b. 1 out of 2

c. 1 out of 10

d. 4 out of 5

If one adult is randomly selected from the 250 surveyed, the

chance that the adult will both make less than $50,000 a year and

have a college degree is:

a. 4 out of 25

b. 1 out of 2

c. 1 out of 10

d. 4 out of 5

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305

258.

Male Infants Mass (kg) by Age (Weeks)

5.5

5.0

4.5

4.0

Mass (kg)

3.5

3.0

2.5

2.0

1.5

1.0

0.5

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Age (weeks)

501 GMAT

Questions

The line graph models the mass, in kilograms, of an average male

infant up to 8 weeks of age. Points X, Y, and Z represent the

masses for the male infant at ages 0.5, 2, and 8 weeks, respectively,

according to the model. For each question, select the option that

creates the most accurate statement based on the information

provided.

For integer values of the age from 0.5 weeks to 2 weeks, the

average (arithmetic mean) mass falls approximately between

_____ kilograms.

a. 3 and 3.5

b. 3.5 and 3.8

c. 3.5 and 4.2

The change in mass from age 0.5 weeks to 2 weeks is approximately

_____ the change in mass from age 2 weeks to 8 weeks.

a. equal to

b. one third

c. one eighth

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259.

More Moisture

Soil Moisture Level

Less Moisture

0 25 50 75 100

Temperature, °C

306

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph shown is a scatterplot with 20 points. Each line

represents soil samples taken from a speciﬁc area of land. Each

point represents a sample of soil. Each sample of soil was tested for

moisture level. Fill in the blanks in each of the following

statements based on the information given by the graph.

The relationship between the temperature of the soil and the

moisture level is:

a. positive

b. negative

c. zero

The slope of the solid line is ___ the slope of the dashed line.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

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307

260.

20 years of

No health

age or older insurance

= 20 people

501 GMAT

Questions

Refer to the Venn diagram of a survey. Each symbol represents 20

people in a sample of 200. Complete each statement according to

the information presented in the diagram.

If one person is selected at random from the 200 surveyed, the

chance that the person will be under 20 or have health insurance

or both is:

a. 1 out of 10

b. 2 out of 10

c. 1 out of 5

d. 9 out of 10

If one person is selected at random from the 200 surveyed, the

chance that the person will be both under 20 and have health

insurance is:

a. 1 out of 10

b. 2 out of 10

c. 1 out of 5

d. 4 out of 5

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261.

Took SAT Born before

tests 1975

No student

loans

= 10 students

308

501 GMAT

Questions

Refer to the pictograph of a survey. Each symbol represents 10

students in a sample of 400. Complete each statement according to

the information presented in the diagram.

If one student is selected at random from the 400 surveyed, the

chance that the student will have not taken the SAT tests, received

student loans, be born after 1975, or all of these is:

a. 1 out of 8

b. 1 out of 5

c. 3 out of 10

d. 7 out of 8

If one student is selected at random from the 400 surveyed, the

chance that the student will have not taken the SAT tests, received

student loans, and be born after 1975 is:

a. 1 out of 20

b. 1 out of 4

c. 3 out of 10

d. 7 out of 8

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309

262.

60 years of age No driver’s

or older license

= 5 people

501 GMAT

Questions

Refer to the pictograph of a survey. Each symbol represents 5

people in a sample of 200. Complete each statement according to

the information presented in the diagram.

If one person is selected at random from the 200 surveyed, the

chance that the person will be under 60 or have a driver’s license or

both is:

a. 1 out of 8

b. 3 out of 20

c. 7 out of 8

d. 9 out of 10

If one person is selected at random from the 200 surveyed, the

chance that the person will both be under 60 and have a driver’s

license is:

a. 1 out of 8

b. 2 out of 5

c. 9 out of 40

d. 5 out of 8

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263.

Owns two or Does not live

more cars in a city

Unmarried

= 20 people

310

501 GMAT

Questions

Refer to the pictograph of a survey. Each symbol represents 20

people in a sample of 700. Complete each statement according to

the information presented in the diagram.

If one person is selected at random from the 700 surveyed, the

chance that the person will own less than two cars, live in a city, be

married, or all of these is:

a. 1 out of 14

b. 2 out of 7

c. 3 out of 7

d. 6 out of 7

If one person is selected at random from the 700 surveyed, the

chance that the person will own less than two cars, live in a city,

and be married is:

a. 1 out of 14

b. 1 out of 7

c. 3 out of 7

d. 5 out of 7

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311

264.

Mass Garbage Produced by City over Time

501 GMAT

Questions

Mass of Garbage (millions of tons)

2000 2002 2004 2006 2008 2010

Time (years)

The graph models the mass, in millions of tons, of the garbage

produced annually by a city over a decade. Points A, B, and C

represent the masses of garbage produced in 2003, 2005, and 2008,

respectively, according to the model. Select the option that creates

the most accurate statement based on the information provided.

For values from years 2003 to 2010, the average (arithmetic mean)

mass of garbage falls approximately between

a. 1 million tons and 1.5 million tons.

b. 2 million tons and 2.5 million tons.

c. 3 million tons and 4 million tons.

The change in mass of garbage from 2003 to 2005 is approximately

___ the change in mass of garbage from 2005 to 2008.

a. less than

b. equal to

c. greater than

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265.

Customer Product Reviews Posted Online over Time

Number of Customer Product Reviews

100

0 5 10 15 20 25

Time (weeks)

312

501 GMAT

Questions

The line graph models the number of product reviews customers

wrote online regarding a product up to 25 weeks after the product

was posted online. Points X, Y, and Z represent the number of

product reviews posted at 5 weeks, 13 weeks, and 20 weeks,

respectively, according to the model. Select the option that creates

the most accurate statement based on the information provided.

For values from 5 weeks to 25 weeks, the average (arithmetic

mean) number of product reviews falls approximately between

a. 5 and 10 reviews.

b. 10 and 20 reviews.

c. 30 and 55 reviews.

The change in number of product reviews from 5 weeks to 13

weeks is approximately ______ the change in number of product

reviews from 13 weeks to 20 weeks.

a. equal to

b. 2 times

c. 4 times

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313

266.

Sales of VHS Players and VHS Tapes

5,000

Numbers Sold (in thousands)

4,000

VHS tapes

3,000

2,000

VHS players

1,000

1990 1995 2000 2005 2010

Time (years)

501 GMAT

Questions

The line graph models the number of VHS players and VHS tapes

sold at a given electronics store over time. Points A and B

represent the number of VHS players sold in 1995 and 2005,

respectively. Points C and D represent the number of VHS tapes

sold in 1995 and 2000, respectively. Select the option that creates

the most accurate statement based on the information provided.

From 1995 to 2005 the average (arithmetic mean) number of VHS

players sold falls approximately between

a. 1300 and 1200.

b. 800 and 600.

c. 400 and 200.

The percent change in the number of VHS player sales from 1995

to 2005 is approximately __________ the percent change in the

number of VHS tape sales from 1995 to 2000.

a. equal to

b. half of

c. two-thirds of

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267.

E-Readers and Tablets Scored

by Product Testers

Scores

Scored by 120 testers

Scored by 35 testers

Scored by 58 testers

Scored by 80 testers

A B C D

Brands of E-Readers and Tablets

314

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph portrays the results of product testers regarding

competing brands of e-readers and tablets. Bars A, B, C, and D

represent different brands of e-readers and tablets, according to

the model. Select the option that creates the most accurate

statement based on the information provided.

The score that resulted in the statistical mode was achieved

by ___________.

a. Product A

b. Product B

c. Product C

d. Product D

The average (arithmetic mean) review on all e-readers and tablets

falls approximately between

a. 1 and 2.

b. 2 and 3.

c. 3 and 4.

d. 4 and 5.

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315

268.

Bacteria Level in Greenville Lake

50°C

Water Temperature (°C)

40°C

200

30°C

150

20°C

100

10°C

Bacteria Level (cfu/100 mL)

0°C

0 5 10 15 20 25 30

Time (Days)

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph depicts measurements of water temperature and

bacteria levels of Greenville Lake. Both the water temperature and

bacteria levels were measured every day at noon for 30 days in a

row. The solid line represents the change in water temperature

over time, and the dashed line represents the change in bacteria

levels over time. Select the option that creates the most accurate

statement based on the information given by the graph.

The relationship between the water temperature of the lake and

the bacteria level is

a. positive.

b. negative.

c. zero.

The slope of the line representing the change in water temperature

is _______ the slope of the line representing the change in bacteria

levels.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

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269.

Bacteria Levels in Ground Beef

0°C 50°C 100°C 150°C 200°C

Temperature °C

316

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph is a scatterplot with 25 points, each representing a beef

tested for bacteria levels. Each beef sample was heated to a certain

temperature, and the bacterial level in the sample was then

measured. The solid line is the regression line and the dashed line

is the line through points (10

/g, 0°C) and (10

/g, 200°C). Fill in

the blanks in each of the following statements based on the

information given by the graph.

The relationship between the temperature of the beef sample and

the bacterial level is

a. positive.

b. negative.

c. zero.

The slope of the regression line is _________ the slope of the

dashed line.

a. less negative than

b. more negative than

c. equal to

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317

270.

Age of Tires on Vehicle (months)

0 5 10 15 20

Rate of Deceleration in Feet per Seconds (fps)

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph is a scatterplot with 40 points, each representing the

results of a test conducted on a vehicle. During each test, the same

vehicle and same set of tires was driven to a speed of 60 mph, and

then the vehicle decelerated to a stop. The rate of deceleration for

each test was measured. The solid line is the regression line and

the dashed line is the line through points (0/0 fps) to point (60/20

fps). Fill in the blanks in each of the following statements based on

the information given by the graph.

The relationship between the age of the tires on the vehicle and

the rate of deceleration is

a. positive.

b. negative.

c. zero.

The slope of the regression line is ______ the slope of the dashed

line.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

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271.

Lactic Acid in Millimoles per Liter (mmol/L)

0 2.5 5 7.5 10 12.5 15

Speed (km/hour)

318

501 GMAT

Questions

The graph is a line graph depicting the lactic acid levels in the

muscles of a jogger on a laboratory treadmill. The speed of the

jogger was recorded along with the lactic acid levels every ﬁve

minutes. Fill in the blanks in each of the following statements

based on the information given by the graph.

The relationship between the running speed and the lactic acid

levels is

a. positive.

b. negative.

c. zero.

The slope of the line between Point A and Point B is _________

the slope of the line between Point C and Point D.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

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319

272.

Archeological Dig Site

Big Falls National Park

A B C

D E F

G H I

Cretaceous fossil

Jurassic fossil

501 GMAT

Questions

The map shows an archeological dig site occurring in a section of

Big Falls National Park, along with markers for the locations of

fossils found. Fill in each blank using the drop-down menus to

create the most accurate statement on the basis of the information

provided.

Cretaceous fossils make up approximately ______ of the fossils

found in the archeological dig.

a. 20%

b. 25%

c. 80%

According to the map, ____________ of all Jurassic fossils were

found in Section I.

a. about one quarter

b. about one half

c. about three quarters

273.

320

501 GMAT

Questions

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The diagram shows, in three columns, different sections of the

electromagnetic spectrum. The far left column shows the radio

and television waves portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. The

central column shows all the types of waves in the electromagnetic

spectrum. The far right column shows the visible portion of the

electromagnetic spectrum.

Fill in each blank using the drop-down menus to create the most

accurate statement on the basis of the information provided.

The color green spans closest to ______ of the visible light

spectrum.

a. 5%

b. 25%

c. 45%

According to the diagram, the color ______ marks the beginning

of light with a 10

Hz frequency and the beginning of the visible

spectrum.

a. violet

b. green

c. white

d. red

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274.

Cross Section of Native Plants

Common

Ninebark

Black-Eyed

Susan

Buffalo

Grass

Length (in feet)

501 GMAT

Questions

The diagram shows a cross section of three different plants,

providing information regarding the plants’ height and length of

roots. Fill in each blank using the drop-down menus to create the

most accurate statement on the basis of the information provided.

The roots of the buffalo grass are approximately ______ the length

of the roots of the common ninebark.

a. 20%

b. 30%

c. 50%

According to the diagram, the roots of the Black-Eyed Susan are

approximately _________ of the total length of the entire common

ninebark plant.

a. one tenth

b. one third

c. one half

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Questions

Answers—Set 10

257. d. The question asks about adults who make less than $50,000 a

year or have a college degree or both, so this involves all the adults

except for the ones represented by the overlapping space in the

Venn diagram. Choice a is incorrect because this ratio represents

adults who earn more than $50,000 a year and do not have a

college degree. Choice b is incorrect because 200 adults out of 250

is not 1 out of 2. Choice c is incorrect because 200 adults out of

250 is not 1 out of 10.

a. The question asks about adults who make less than $50,000 a

year and have a college degree, so this involves all the adults

represented outside the Venn diagram. Choice b is incorrect

because 40 adults out of 250 is not 1 out of 2. Choice c is incorrect

because 40 adults out of 250 is not 1 out of 10. Choice d is

incorrect because 40 adults out of 250 is not 4 out of 5.

258. b. The question asks about the average (arithmetic mean) mass for

values between ages 0.5 weeks and 2 weeks. These are the values

that fall between points X and Y. So the average mass must be

between 3.5 and 3.8 kg. Choice a is incorrect because these are

values before 0.5 weeks. Choice c is incorrect because these are

values between 0.5 weeks and about 3 weeks.

b. The question compares the change in mass between points X

and Y with the change in mass between points Y and Z. The mass

changes less than 0.5 kilograms between points X and Y and

changes about 1.5 kilograms between points Y and Z, so the

correct answer is choice b. Choice a is incorrect because the mass

changes about three times as much between points Y and Z as it

changes between points X and Y. Choice c is incorrect because the

mass changes about three times as much between points Y and Z as

it changes between points X and Y.

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501 GMAT

Questions

259. b. The question asks about the relationship between the

temperature of the soil sample and the moisture level. According

to the scatterplot, moisture levels decrease as the temperature

increases. Therefore, this is a negative relationship. Choice a is

incorrect because both factors would have to increase in order to

have a positive relationship. Choice c is incorrect because there is a

correlation between soil temperature and moisture levels.

c. The question compares the slope of the lines. Both lines have

the same slope. Therefore, choice a is incorrect because the slope

of the solid line is not less than the slope of the dashed line. Choice

b is incorrect because the slop of the solid line is not greater than

the slope of the dashed line.

260. d. The question asks about people who are under 20 years old or

have health insurance or both, so this involves all the people except

for the ones represented by the overlapping space in the Venn

diagram. Therefore, this means nine stick ﬁgures, or 180 people

out of a total of 200 people surveyed. Choice a is incorrect because

180 people out of a total of 200 people is not 1 out of 10. Choice b

is incorrect because 180 people out of a total of 200 people is not 2

out of 10. Choice c is incorrect because 180 people out of a total of

200 people is not 1 out of 5.

c. The question asks about people who are under 20 years old and

have health insurance, so this involves all the people represented

outside the Venn diagram. Therefore, this means two stick ﬁgures,

or 40 people out of a total of 200 people surveyed (or 1 out of 5).

Choice a is incorrect because 40 people out of 200 is not 1 out of

10. Choice b is incorrect because 40 people out of 200 is not 2 out

of 10. Choice d is incorrect because 40 people out of 200 is not 4

out of 5.

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501 GMAT

Questions

261. d. The question asks about students who have not taken the SAT

tests or received student loans or were born after 1975, or all these

factors. So this involves all the students except for the ones

represented by the overlapping space in the Venn diagram.

Therefore, this number is represented by 35 symbols out of 40

symbols in the Venn diagram, or 7 out of 8. Choice a is incorrect

because 350 students out of 400 is not 1 out of 8. Choice b is

incorrect because 350 students out of 400 is not 1 out of 5. Choice

c is incorrect because 350 students out of 400 is not 3 out of 10.

b. The question asks about students who have not taken the SAT

tests, received student loans, and were born after 1975. So this

involves all the students represented outside the Venn diagram, or

100 students out of 400 students (or 1 out of 4). Choice a is

incorrect because 100 students out of 400 is not 1 out of 20.

Choice c is incorrect because 100 students out of 400 is not 3 out

of 10. Choice d is incorrect because 100 students out of 400 is not

7 out of 8.

262. c. The question asks about people who are under 60 or have a

driver’s license, or both. So this involves all the people represented

by the Venn diagram, except for the ones represented by the

overlapping space. Therefore, the correct answer is 175 people out

of 200, or 7 out of 8. Choice a is incorrect because 175 people out

of 200 is not 1 out of 8. Choice b is incorrect because 175 people

out of 200 is not 3 out of 20. Choice d is incorrect because 175

people out of 200 is not 9 out of 10.

b. The question asks about people who are under 60 and have a

driver’s license. So this involves all the people represented outside

the Venn diagram, or 80 out of 200 (or 2 out of 5). Choice a is

incorrect because 80 people out of 200 is not 1 out of 8. Choice c

is incorrect because 80 people out of 200 is not 9 out of 40. Choice

d is incorrect because 80 people out of 200 is not 5 out of 8.

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501 GMAT

Questions

263. d. The question asks about people who own less than two cars or

live in a city or are married, or all these factors. So this involves all

the people represented in the Venn diagram, except for the ones

represented by the overlapping space. Therefore, the correct

answer is 600 people out of 700, or 6 out of 7. Choice a is

incorrect because 600 people out of 700 is not 1 out of 14. Choice

b is incorrect because 600 people out of 700 is not 2 out of 7.

Choice c is incorrect because 600 people out of 700 is not 3 out

of 7.

b. The question asks about people who own less than two cars, live

in a city, and are married. So this involves all the people

represented outside the Venn diagram, or 100 people out of 700

(1 out of 7). Choice a is incorrect because 100 people out of 700 is

not 1 out of 14. Choice c is incorrect because 100 people out of

700 is not 3 out of 7. Choice d is incorrect because 100 people out

of 700 is not 5 out of 7.

264. c. The question asks about the average (arithmetic mean) mass for

values between 2003 and 2010. These are the values that fall

between point A and the end of the graphed line. So the average

mass must be between 1.5 and 5.0 millions of tons. Choice a is

incorrect because these are values before 2003. Choice b is

incorrect because most of the values represented by the line are

greater than 2.5 million tons, so this can’t be the average.

a. The question compares the change in mass between points A

and B with the change in mass between points B and C. The mass

changes about 1 million tons between points A and B and changes

about 2 million tons between points B and C, so the correct answer

is choice a. Choices b and c are incorrect because the mass

changes less between points A and B than it changes between

points B and C.

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501 GMAT

Questions

265. c. The question asks about the average (arithmetic mean) number

of product reviews for values between 5 weeks and 25 weeks.

These are the values that fall between points X and Z on the

graphed line. The correct answer is choice c because most of the

values graphed by the line fall between 30 and 55 reviews. Choice

a is incorrect because these are the very values represented by the

line. Choice b is incorrect because these are the very values

represented by the line and most of the values represented by the

line are for 20 reviews or more.

b. The question compares the change in the number of product

reviews between points X and Y with the change in the number of

product reviews between points Y and Z. The change in the

number of product reviews between points X and Y is about 35

reviews. The change in the number of product reviews between

points Y and Z is about 15 reviews. So the correct answer is choice

b. Choice a is incorrect because the change is not equal. Choice c

is incorrect because the change between points X and Y is not four

times the change between points Y and Z.

266. b. The question asks about the average (arithmetic mean) number

of VHS players sold between 1995 and 2005. These are the values

that fall between points A and B, so the average must be between

200 and 1200 VHS players sold. Choice a is incorrect because

these values do not fall between 1995 and 2005. Choice c is

incorrect because most of the values graphed between points A and

B are greater than 400, so the average is likely greater than 400.

c. The question compares the percent change in the number of

VHS player sales from 1995 to 2005 with the percent change in the

number of VHS tape sales from 1995 to 2000. There was a change of

1,000 in the number of VHS players sold over 10 years (or 200 sales

per year) and a change of 1,500 in the number of VHS tapes sold

over 5 years (or 300 sales per year). So, the percent change in VHS

player sales is about two-thirds the percent change in VHS tape sales.

Choice a is incorrect because the percent change in the number of

VHS player sales from 1995 to 2005 and the percent change in the

number of VHS tape sales from 1995 to 2000 are not equal. Choice

b is incorrect because the percent change in the number of VHS

player sales from 1995 to 2005 is more than half of the percent

change in the number of VHS tape sales from 1995 to 2000.

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501 GMAT

Questions

267. a. The question asks about the product with the score that is the

statistical mode. Product A had the most testers give it the same

score (a score of 5), therefore this is the mode. Choice b is

incorrect because only 35 testers gave Product B a score of 2.

Choice c is incorrect because only 58 testers gave Product C a

score of 3. Choice d is incorrect because only 80 testers gave

Product D a score of 4.

d. The question asks for the average score on all e-readers and

tablets. Because a majority of the scores were 4 and 5, the average

is most likely between 4 and 5. Choice a is incorrect because no

products scored a 1 and only Product B scored a 2 thirty-ﬁve

times. Choice b is incorrect; less than half of the scores were in

this range. Choice c is incorrect; less than half of the scores were

in this range.

268. a. The question asks about the relationship between the water

temperature of the lake and the bacteria level. The graph shows

that as the water temperature increases, the bacteria level

increases, which is a positive relationship. Choice b is incorrect

because one factor would have to increase while the other factor

decreases in order to have a negative relationship. Choice c is

incorrect because there is a correlation between water temperature

values and bacteria levels.

b. The question compares the slope of the line representing the

change in water temperature with the slope of the line

representing the change in bacteria levels. The line graphed to

represent the change in water temperature has a positive slope, and

the line graphed to represent the change in bacteria levels has a

less positive slope. Choice a is incorrect because the slope of the

line representing the change in water temperatures if greater than

the slope of the line representing bacteria levels. Choice c is

incorrect because the slopes of the lines are not equal.

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501 GMAT

Questions

269. b. The question asks about the relationship between the

temperature of the beef sample and the bacterial level. According

to the scatterplot, bacteria levels decrease as the temperature

increases. Therefore, this is a negative relationship. Choice a is

incorrect because both factors would have to increase in order to

have a positive relationship. Choice c is incorrect because there is a

correlation between beef temperature and bacteria levels.

a. The question compares the slope of the lines. The regression

line has a negative slope, and the dashed line has a very negative

slope. Therefore, choice b is incorrect because the regression line

has a less negative slope than the dashed line. Choice c is incorrect

because the slopes of the lines are not equal.

270. a. The question asks about the relationship between the age of the

tires on a vehicle and the rate of deceleration. According to the

scatterplot, the rate of deceleration increases as the tires increase in

age. Therefore, this is a positive relationship. Choice b is incorrect

because one factor would have to increase while the other factor

decreases in order to have a negative relationship. Choice c is

incorrect because there is a correlation between the age of the tires

on a vehicle and the rate of deceleration.

a. The question compares the slope of the lines. The regression

line has a positive slope, and the dashed line has a very positive

slope. Choice b is incorrect because the slope of the regression line

is not greater than the slope of the dashed line. Choice c is

incorrect because the slopes of the lines are not equal.

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Questions

271. a. The question asks about the relationship between the running

speed and the lactic acid levels. According to the graph, as the

speed of the runner increases, the lactic acid levels in the runner

increase. Therefore, the relationship is positive. Choice b is

incorrect because one factor would have to increase while the

other decreases in order to have a negative relationship. Choice c

is incorrect because there is a correlation between the running

speed and the lactic acid levels.

a. The question compares the slope of the line between Point A

and Point B with the slope of the line between Point C and Point

D. The slope of the line between Point A and Point B is 2/5,

whereas the slope of the line between Point C and Point D is 8/5.

Therefore, the slope of the line between Point A and Point B is

less than the slope of the line between Point C and Point D.

Choice b is incorrect because the slope of the line between Point A

and Point B is not greater than the slope of the line between Point

C and Point D. Choice c is incorrect because the slopes of the lines

are not equal.

272. a. The question asks about percentage of the fossils that are

Cretaceous. According to the map, there are 5 Cretaceous fossils

and 20 Jurassic fossils found in the dig. Therefore, there are 5

Cretaceous fossils out of a total of 25 fossils, so 20% of the fossils

found are Cretaceous fossils. Choice b is incorrect because there

are 5 Cretaceous fossils out of a total of 25 fossils, not 5

Cretaceous fossils out of a total of 20 fossils. Choice c is incorrect

because there are 5 Cretaceous fossils out of a total of 25 fossils,

not 20 Cretaceous fossils out of a total of 25 fossils.

b. The question asks about the portion of all Jurassic fossils that

were found in Section I of the map. According to the map, a total

of 20 Jurassic fossils were found, and 8 of them were found in

Section I. Therefore, 8 out of 20, or about one half, of all Jurassic

fossils were found in Section I. Choice a is incorrect because more

than 5 Jurassic fossils were found in Section I. Choice c is

incorrect because 8 out of 20 of all Jurassic fossils were found in

Section I, not 15 out of 20.

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Questions

273. b. The question asks the percent that the color green takes up in

the spectrum of visible light. According to the diagram, green

takes up roughly one quarter, or 25%, of the visible light spectrum.

Choice a is incorrect because green takes up about 25% of the

visible light spectrum; violet takes up about 5% of the visible light

spectrum. Choice c is incorrect because no colors take up nearly

half of the visible light spectrum.

a. The question asks about the color that both begins the visible

light spectrum and additionally begins the light in the spectrum

that has a 10

Hz frequency. According to the diagram, the visible

light spectrum begins at 10

Hz frequency, and the color that

begins at this frequency is violet. Choice b is incorrect because

green has a lower frequency than 10

Hz frequency. Choice c is

incorrect because white is not a color in the visible light spectrum

on the diagram. Choice d is incorrect because red does not begin

the visible light spectrum and has a frequency closer to 10

14.5

Hz.

274. c. The question asks the percent of the length of the roots of the

common ninebark that are taken up by the roots of the buffalo

grass. According to the diagram, the roots of the buffalo grass are

8 feet long, and the roots of the common ninebark are 15 feet

long. Therefore, the roots of the buffalo grass are about 50% the

length of the roots of the common ninebark. Choice a is incorrect

because the roots of the buffalo grass are 8 feet long, not 3 feet

long. Choice b is incorrect because the roots of the buffalo grass

are 8 feet long, not 5 feet long.

b. The question asks the fraction of the length of the entire

common ninebark plant that are taken up by the roots of the

Black-Eyed Susan. According to the diagram, the common

ninebark plant is 4 feet tall with 15-foot roots. So its total length is

19 feet. The roots of the Black-Eyed Susan are 6 feet long.

Therefore, the roots of the Black-Eyed Susan are about a third of

the length of the entire common ninebark plant. Choice a is

incorrect because the roots of the Black-Eyed Susan are 6 feet

long, not 1.9 feet long. Choice c is incorrect because the roots of

the Black-Eyed Susan are 6 feet long, not 9.5 feet long.

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Two-Part Analysis

Two-part analysis questions are one question type you’ll see in the

integrated reasoning section of the GMAT. With two-part analysis ques-

tions, you will be asked questions that have two-part solutions. The solu-

tions will be provided in a table with several columns. In order to answer

these questions, you must choose correct answers from column 3. The cor-

rect answers are deductions best supported by the details in the text or by

provided formulas and information.

Test-Taking Tips

When working on the two-part analysis questions of the GMAT, there are

a few techniques to keep in mind that can help you improve your score.

Practice using the following techniques when answering the two-part analy-

sis questions in this book.

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How Should I Work on Two-Part Analysis Questions?

■

Begin by reading the question carefully.

Be sure to read the entire question, including any text and

formulas provided.

■

Read all the answer choices in the columns.

The answer choices often provide important information that

you will need to solve the problem. So, read all the answer

choices carefully. For example, a question may ask you to

determine which answer choice ﬁts a series of requirements.

To answer the question correctly, you will need to assess each

of the answer choices.

■

Eliminate any clearly incorrect answer choices.

You may be able to spot a clearly incorrect answer immediately

once you’ve seen the answer choices provided. If so, focus on

the remaining answer choices.

What Do I Do if I Don’t Know the Answer?

■

Try to make an educated guess.

Use the information you know and understand to choose the

best answer that you can.

■

Do not skip the question unless you are sure you do not know

the answer.

With the computerized GMAT, you will be unable to return to

the question later.

■

Make sure you understand the question and the answer choices.

Take a moment to reread the statements and to review the

answer choices. You may have misunderstood the question or

missed a key word (such as “not” or “only”). Once you are sure

you clearly understand what the question is asking, try to

answer it again.

■

Give yourself another minute or two to answer the question,

but do not take too long.

You want to be sure to answer the question correctly, but you

also want to have enough time to answer all the questions on

the test. Be sure to maintain a calm, even pace as you work on

the question, and try to avoid wasting time

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General GMAT Tips and Techniques

■

Use scrap paper.

Scrap paper is a key tool on the GMAT. You can write down

answer choices that you’ve eliminated. You can also write down

key pieces of information from the questions and the answer

choices.

■

Pace yourself.

Give yourself enough time to read and comprehend the

question, but be conscientious about your time. Managing

your time wisely will help you have enough time to ﬁnish the

test—or complete as many questions as possible.

■

Be sure you have everything you need before you begin the test.

Be sure you have pencils, paper, and anything else you need

before beginning the test.

■

Try to answer all the questions on the test.

Answering all the questions on the test is a way to shoot for a

higher score. Of course, you may encounter questions you do

not know how to answer. While you do not want to wildly

guess at the answers, you do want to try to make educated

guesses. Even if you can eliminate one answer choice as

incorrect, you have improved your chances of picking the

correct answer for that question. So try to answer all the

questions, or as many questions as possible.

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Set 11

Now it is time to answer GMAT Two-Part Analysis practice questions that

have been designed to test your integrated reasoning skills. Good luck!

275. The XP Racer is a new electric scooter. When driving on smooth

city roads, the XP Racer’s energy efﬁciency is X kilometers per joule

(X km/J) when traveling at a constant speed of Y kilometers per hour

(Y km/h).

In terms of the variables X and Y, select the expression that best

represents the number of joules of electricity used in one hour of

traveling on smooth city roads at a constant speed of Y. Then, select

the expression that represents the number of joules of electricity

used in a 100 km drive traveling on smooth city roads at a constant

speed of Y. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Joules of electricity

in 1 hour

Joules of electricity

in 100 kilometers

Y/X

Blank

X/Y

Blank

100/X

Blank

100/Y

Blank

X/100

Blank

Y/100

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276. At a hot dog eating contest, one contestant ate at a constant rate of

H hot dogs per minute (H hot dogs/min.). The contestant had

burned calories from activity during the contest and taken in

calories from eating the hot dogs for an overall caloric intake of C

calories per hot dog (C calories/hot dog).

In terms of the variables H and C, select the expression that best

represents the number of calories taken in during one minute of

eating at a constant rate. Then, select the expression that

represents the number of calories taken in if the contestant had

eaten 100 hot dogs at a constant rate of H. Make only two

selections, one in each column.

Calories taken in

during 1 minute

Calories taken in

if the contestant

ate 100 hot dogs

C/H

Blank Blank

H/C

Blank Blank

(C)(H)

Blank Blank

(C)(100)

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277. A survival instructor teaches a class how to survive when lost in the

wild. The survival instructor takes the class hiking through the

woods and makes sure to keep his water loss through sweat at

around W meters per liter of water lost (W m/L) when hiking at a

constant speed of S meters per hour (S m/h).

In terms of the variables W and S, select the expression that best

represents the number of liters of water lost in one hour of hiking

in the woods at a constant speed of S. Then, select the expression

that represents the number of liters of water lost in a 1,000 m hike

traveling at a constant speed of S. Make only two selections, one in

each column.

Liters of water in

1 hour

Liters of water in

1,000 meters

W/S

Blank

S/W

Blank

1,000/W

Blank

1,000/S

Blank

W/1,000

Blank

S/1,000

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278. A marathon runner’s energy efﬁciency is C meters per calorie

(C m/cal) when running at a rate of M meters per second (M m/s).

In terms of the variables C and M, select the expression that best

represents the number of calories used in one hour of running at a

constant rate of M. Then, select the expression that represents the

number of calories used in a 500-meter race while running at a

constant rate of M. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Calories used in

1 hour

Calories used in a

500-meter race 500/C

Blank

500/M

Blank

C/500

Blank

M/500

Blank

C/M

Blank

M/C

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Questions

279.

The following excerpt from a ﬁctitious science news report

discusses a ﬁctitious type of pollutant called tritans.

For years, scientists have studied the effects of tritans on

birds’ eggs, but recently scientists have also discovered that

tritans affect other egg-laying species. Tritans were known

to cause birds to lay their eggs too early and also weaken the

shell of eggs. As a result, embryos in the eggs have less of a

chance to survive. Fewer eggs resulted in live offspring, and

the numbers of these species of birds diminished. Now,

scientists recently discovered that the decreasing numbers

of certain species of lizards has also been caused by tritans.

These species of lizards tend to bury their eggs in sand

nests, whereas the birds had nests in trees. Scientists are

now researching the source of the tritans in order to limit

tritans pollution in the environment.

Based on the deﬁnition of the imaginary word tritans that can be

inferred from the previous paragraph, which of the following traits

of a pollutant must be true for that pollutant to be tritans and

which must NOT be true for that pollutant to be tritans? Make

only two selections, one in each column.

Must be true Must not be true

Traits of a pollutant

Blank

Decrease the number

of eggs laid

Blank

Comes from the

water supply

Blank

Increases the number

of embryos that die

Blank

Builds up in animals’

bodies

Blank

Thickens the shell of

eggs

338

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280.

The following excerpt from a ﬁctitious economics news article

focuses on a type of ﬁnancial exchange called an M.T.B.

After the recent banking collapse, new regulations have

forced larger banks to acknowledge all M.T.B. exchanges

that exceed $250,000. Banks that do not disclose this

information to the government will risk losing all federal

bailout monies. In addition, all M.T.B.s involving IPOs

must be disclosed to all shareholders on a quarterly basis.

While the long-term effects of this new regulation cannot

be predicted, the goal of this regulation is to limit the

number of annual M.T.B. exchanges that larger banks

conduct.

Based on the deﬁnition of the imaginary word M.T.B. that can be

inferred from the previous paragraph, which of the following traits

of a ﬁnancial exchange must be true for that ﬁnancial exchange to

be an M.T.B. and which must NOT be true for that ﬁnancial

exchange to be an M.T.B.? Make only two selections, one in each

column.

Must be true to

be an M.T.B.

Must not be true

to be an M.T.B.

Traits of a ﬁnancial

exchange

Blank

Must be disclosed to

shareholders of IPOs

Blank

Not regulated by the

government

Blank

Involving more than

$250,000

Blank

Occurring every

three months

Blank

Happens at all

banks

339

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340

281.

The following excerpt from a ﬁctitious veterinary textbook

discusses a ﬁctitious type of disease called spurnit.

The diagnosis of spurnit in dogs can be difﬁcult as

symptoms do not always manifest until the disease has

progressed. Unlike other illnesses that cause an increase in

swelling in the glands, spurnit does not, making early

detection difﬁcult. Nonetheless, early symptoms include a

slightly swollen tongue and/or an elevated level of white

blood cells. Early detection is key because the treatment of

spurnit varies depending on the duration the dog has

carried the disease. Early treatments can involve a simple

course of antibiotics and then a year-long daily regimen of

probiotics. Later stages of the disease often tend to resist all

treatments, but daily blood transfusions have been shown to

ease symptoms in certain cases.

Based on the deﬁnition of the imaginary word spurnit that can be

inferred from the previous paragraph, which of the following are

deﬁnitely traits of spurnit and which of the following are deﬁnitely

NOT spurnit? Make only two selections, one in each column.

Trait of spurnit NOT trait of spurnit

Blank

Only affects dogs

Blank

Causes glands to

swell

Blank

Can be detected

in a basic exam

Blank

Causes more

white blood cells

Blank

Transmitted by

the mouth

Blank

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Questions

282.

The following excerpt from a ﬁctitious camping guidebook focuses

on a ﬁctitious type of plant called poison senity.

Poison senity thrives only in a limited region of the Paciﬁc

Northwest. The oily coating and sap from the poison senity,

known as urushiol, can cause itching, burning, and severe

blistering on the skin. Notable features of poison senity

include its ﬁve almond-shaped leaﬂets and its aroma. While

being similar to poison ivy and poison oak, the injuries

caused by the urushiol produced by poison senity can be

much more severe because poison senity’s urushiol can take

a longer time to have an effect. As a result, sufferers do not

realize that they have the oils on their skin and can transfer

the poisonous oils to more places on their body. Typical

places are the hands, legs, mouth, neck, and eyes. A person

exposed to poison senity’s urushiol should wash the area

with soap and warm water immediately and seek medical help.

Based on the deﬁnition of the imaginary plant poison senity that can

be inferred from the previous paragraph, which of the following

characteristics of a plant must be true for that plant to be a poison

senity, and which must NOT be true for that plant to be a poison

senity? Make only two selections, one in each column.

Must be true Must not be true

Traits of a plant

Blank

Causes high

fevers

Blank

Common through

parts of the United

States

Blank

Grows best in damp

climates

Blank

Poisonous oil

spreads easily

Blank

Can be fatal if

swallowed

341

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Questions

283.

The following excerpt from a ﬁctitious advertisement discusses a

ﬁctitious type of acne treatment called Clarens.

Clarens users have reported a dramatic improvement in

their acne and skin irritations. Most users prefer Clarens to

other acne treatments. That is because Clarens is specially

formulated to ﬁght acne in all its forms: whiteheads,

blackheads, regular pimples, and the scars that can form

from acne as it heals. The Clarens treatment comes in three

parts. First, a simple tea tree oil facial wash to rid the pores

of dirt. Second, a benzoyl peroxide ointment that can be

spread over the whole face or dabbed on problem areas.

Unlike other acne treatments, the Clarens ointment contains

a stronger dosage of benzoyl peroxide than other brands,

but Clarens doesn’t irritate the skin. Lastly, the Clarens

treatment includes to-go washes that contains salicylic acid.

No other brand on the market offers these special washes.

Based on the deﬁnition of the imaginary brand Clarens that can be

inferred from the previous paragraph, which of the following

describes an acne treatment that must be Clarens and which of the

following describes an acne treatment that is NOT Clarens? Make

only two selections, one in each column.

Must be

Clarens

Must NOT be

Clarens

Blank

Can be used to wash the face

Blank

A form of salicylic acid that can

be used outside the home

Blank

A strict face regimen that must

be adhered to

Blank

Free of dyes, perfumes, and

chemicals

Blank

Gentle on the skin

342

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343

284.

Country A presently produces 4 billion tons of carbon emissions

each year. Country B presently produces 5 billion tons of carbon

emissions each year. The carbon emissions produced by both

countries is increasing yearly, each at its own constant rate.

Scientists predict that both countries will maintain their constant

yearly increase in carbon emissions. In addition, scientists predict

that Country A and Country B will produce the same carbon

emissions in 10 years, and Country A will produce more carbon

emissions than Country B after 10 years.

In the following table, identify the rate of increase in carbon

emissions per year for both countries that support the scientists’

predictions. Make only one selection in each column.

Country A Country B

Rate of Carbon Emission Increase

(billions of tons each year)

Blank

0.05

Blank

0.15

Blank

0.50

Blank

344

501 GMAT

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285. During a period of time when the price of gas is on the rise, Gas

Station X charges $3.40 a gallon and Gas Station Y charges $4.00 a

gallon. Both gas stations are increasing the cost they charge for gas

each week, each at its own constant rate. If both gas stations

continue to increase their costs at their constant rates, they will be

charging the same price for gas four weeks from now, and Gas

Station Y will charge more than Gas Station X in subsequent

weeks.

In the following table, identify the rate of increase per week for the

cost of gas for both gas stations that supports the predictions stated

in the paragraph. Make only one selection in each column.

Gas Station X Gas Station Y

Rate of Cost of Gas Increase

(each week)

Blank

$0.01

Blank

$0.05

Blank

$0.10

Blank

$0.15

Blank

$0.20

Blank

$0.45

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Questions

286.

University A currently has 20,000 students enrolled. University B

currently has 22,500 students enrolled. The number of students

enrolling in University A and the number of students enrolling in

University B increases each year, each at its own constant rate. The

deans of the universities project that if each university maintains its

constant rate of student enrollment increase, ﬁve years from now

they will both have the same number of students enrolled, and

University A will have more students enrolled than University B in

subsequent years.

In the following table, identify the rate of increase, in student

enrollment per year, for University A and the rate of increase, in

student enrollment per year, for University B that are both

consistent with the deans’ projections. Make only one selection in

each column.

University A University B

Rate of Increase (students

enrolled per year)

Blank Blank

400

Blank Blank

1,000

Blank Blank

1,500

Blank Blank

1,800

Blank Blank

2,200

Blank Blank

2,600

345

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Questions

287.

Environmental scientists studying endangered species in a given

region have observed that there are presently 800 members of

Species X in the region and 600 members of Species Y in the

region. The number of each species is decreasing annually, each at

its own constant rate. Environmental scientists predict that both

species will maintain their constant yearly decrease in numbers. In

addition, environmental scientists predict that if both species

maintain their constant rate of decrease, 10 years from now they

will for the ﬁrst time have the same number of members, and in

subsequent years there will be fewer Species X than Species Y.

In the following table, identify the rate of decrease in the numbers

of each species per year that supports the environmental scientists’

predictions. Make only one selection in each column.

Species X Species Y

Rate of Decrease of Species (in

number of members per year)

Blank Blank

200

Blank Blank

400

Blank Blank

500

346

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Questions

288.

Athlete A currently trains 180 minutes each week. Athlete B

currently trains 250 minutes each week. Both athletes A and B are

increasing the number of minutes spent training each week, both

at a different constant rate. If both athletes keep to their constant

rate of training increase, in seven weeks from now, they will be

training for the same number of minutes each week, and in

subsequent weeks, athlete A will train more each week than

athlete B.

In the following table, identify the rate of increase in number of

training minutes each week for both athletes that support the

predictions stated in the last paragraph. Make only one selection in

each column.

Athlete A Athlete B

Rate of T

raining Increase

(number of minutes per week)

Blank Blank

347

348

501 GMAT

Questions

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289. A caterer offers two menus for large events, such as weddings and

conferences. To show the variety of foods the caterer can prepare,

one of the menus has entirely meat-free and vegetarian options

and the other menu includes two ﬁsh options. Neither menu

should have more than two hot options. The caterer has already

decided on three out of the four options for both menus. Those

menus are shown here.

*Menu 1* *Menu 2*

Spanish gazpacho (appetizer,

vegetarian, cold)

Thai shrimp soup (appetizer,

hot)

Curried tofu (entree,

vegetarian, hot)

Salmon tacos (entree, hot)

Bananas ﬂambé (dessert,

vegetarian, hot)

Chocolate mousse (dessert,

vegetarian, cold)

Select an option that could be added to both menus. Then, select

an option that could NOT be added to either menu. Make only

two selections, one in each column.

Both menus Neither menu

Option

Blank

Sesame carrot salad (salad,

vegetarian, cold)

Blank

Whiteﬁsh and tomato salad

(salad, cold)

Blank

Hot bread pudding (dessert,

vegetarian, hot)

Blank

Beef spring rolls (entree,

cold)

Blank

Spinach and wild rice (salad,

vegetarian, hot)

Blank

Lobster ravioli (entree, hot)

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Questions

290.

The staff at the Botanical Garden is planning the garden’s yearly

two-day spring festival intended to celebrate the blooming of the

cherry trees. Five events will be offered each day. To celebrate the

blooming cherry trees, the majority of events scheduled for at least

one day will be located in the Cherry Tree Esplanade in the park.

On the other day of the spring festival, at least four of the events

can be for children or allow children. Neither day should have

more than two events that are just for seniors. The Botanical

Garden staff has already agreed on a festival schedule for eight of

the ten events. That schedule is shown here.

Day 1 Day 2

Children’s Flower Parade (in

Cherry Esplanade, ages 0–12)

Face Painting (in Cherry

Esplanade, ages 0–12)

Using Blossoms in Paintings

(in Cherry Esplanade, ages

5–12)

Yoga for Senior Citizens (in

Cherry Esplanade, seniors)

Jazz and Cocktails (seniors

only)

Singles Mingle with Music

(ages 21 and up)

String Quartet Playing

Mozart (ages 0 and up)

Dancing among Blossoms:

Learn to Waltz (all ages)

349

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Questions

Select an event that could be added to the schedule for either day.

Then, select an event that could be added to the schedule for

neither day. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Either day Neither day

Event

Blank

Lecture on the History of the

Gardens (ages 21 and up)

Blank

Creating Your Own Garden (all

ages)

Blank

Making Cherry Ice Cream (in

Cherry Esplanade, all ages)

Blank

Blossoms: Puppet Show (Main

Theater

, ages 0–12)

Blank

Senior Walking Tour (in Cherry

Esplanade, seniors)

350

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Questions

291.

The American Arts department at a small museum is organizing an

exhibit focused on Georgia O’Keeffe. Her work will be featured in

two rooms of the museum. Both rooms have space to

accommodate ﬁve of her paintings. The museum wants a majority

of the paintings in one room to be O’Keeffe paintings that include

skulls or bones. In the other room, the museum wants at least four

of the paintings to be from 1935 or later. Neither room should

have more than two O’Keeffe paintings of buildings of any sort.

The museum has already decided on eight of the paintings for

these two rooms. The plan is shown here.

Room 1 Room 2

“Cow’s Skull: Red, White, and

Blue,” 1931

“Red Hills with Flowers,”

1937

“Church Steeple,” 1930 “Ram’s Head, Blue Morning

Glory,” 1938

“Ranchos Church,” 1930 “Ram’s Head with Holly-

hock,” 1935

“Cow’s Skull with Calico

Roses,” 1931

“Horse’s Skull with White

Rose,” 1931

Select a painting that could work for both rooms. Then, select a

painting that could NOT work in either room. Make only two

selections, one in each column.

Both

rooms

Neither

room

Paintings

Blank

“Calla Lillies on Red,” 1928

Blank

“Sky Above Clouds,” 1965

Blank

“White Rose,” 1927

Blank

“Church Bell, Ward Colorado,” 1917

Blank

“Deer’s Skull with Pedernal,” 1936

351

352

501 GMAT

Questions

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292. A nonproﬁt literary group in the United States is organizing a day-

long poetry event for the community. Five poets will read in the

morning, and another ﬁve poets will read in the afternoon. To

make sure that the poets engage a young audience, the literary

group wants a majority of poets in one part of the event to be born

after 1970. The other part of the event should have at least four

women poets. Neither part of the event should have more than two

poets from other countries. The literary group has already agreed

on a plan for eight of the ten poets. That plan, showing names

along with each poet’s birth year and country of origin, is shown

here.

Morning Afternoon

Matthew Dickman (male,

born 1975, USA)

Tracy K. Smith (female, born

1972, USA)

Kwame Dawes (male, born

1962, Ghana)

Jo Shapcott (female, born

1953, England)

Erika Metiner (female, born

1975, USA)

Coral Bracho (female, born

1951, Mexico)

Aimee Nezhukumatathiln

(female, born 1974, USA)

Amiri Baraka (male, born

1934, USA)

353

501 GMAT

Questions

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Select a poet who could be added to either the morning or the

afternoon. Then, select a poet who could NOT be added to either

the morning or the afternoon. Make only two selections, one in

each column.

Both morning Neither morning

and afternoon nor afternoon

Poet

Blank

Rita Dove (female, born

1952, USA)

Blank

Claribel Alegria (female,

born 1924, Nicaragua)

Blank

Camille Dungy (female,

born 1972, USA)

Blank

Natasha Trethewey

(female, born 1966, USA)

Blank

Kazim Ali (male, born

1971, USA)

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Answers—Set 11

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501 GMAT

Questions

275. Column 1, line 1. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of joules of electricity used in one hour of

driving in certain circumstances. For column 1, line 2 (X/Y) is

incorrect because the result would be in terms of the number of

hours, not the number of joules. Line 3 (100/X) is incorrect

because this determines the amount of electricity used when

driving 100 kilometers. Line 4 (100/Y) is incorrect because the

answer would be in terms of the number of hours. Line 5 (X/100)

is incorrect because this simply divides the energy efﬁciency by

100 and does not show the number of joules used in one hour of

driving. Line 6 (Y/100) is incorrect because this divides the speed

by 100 and does not show the number of joules used in one hour

of driving.

Column 2, line 3. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of joules of electricity used when driving

100 kilometers in certain circumstances. For column 2, line 1

(Y/X) is incorrect because dividing speed by energy efﬁciency

doesn’t determine the amount of energy used in 100 kilometers.

Line 2 (X/Y) is incorrect because dividing energy efﬁciency by

speed doesn’t determine the amount of energy used in 100

kilometers. Line 4 (100/Y) is incorrect because the answer would

be in terms of the number of hours, not number of joules. Line 5

(X/100) is incorrect because dividing the energy efﬁciency by 100

does not show the number of joules used when driving 100

kilometers. Line 6 (Y/100) is incorrect because dividing the speed

by 100 does not show the number of joules used when driving

100 kilometers.

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276. Column 1, line 5. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of calories taken in during one minute of

eating hot dogs at a constant rate. For column 1, line 1 (C/H) is

incorrect because dividing the number of calories per hot dog by

the rate at which the contestant ate hot dogs does not result in

ﬁnding out the number of calories taken in during one minute.

Line 2 (H/C) is incorrect because dividing the rate at which the

contestant ate hot dogs by the number of calories per hot dog does

not result in ﬁnding out the number of calories taken in during

one minute. Line 3 (C

) is incorrect because this only involves the

number of calories per hot dog and does not involve a unit of time.

Line 4 (H

) is incorrect because this only involves the number of

hot dogs eaten over time and does not involve ﬁnding out the

caloric intake. Line 6 (C)(100) is incorrect because this does not

involve time.

Column 2, line 6. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of calories taken in if the contestant ate 100

hot dogs at a constant rate. For column 2, line 1 (C/H) is incorrect

because dividing the number of calories per hot dog by the rate at

which the contestant ate hot dogs does not result in ﬁnding out the

number of calories taken in from eating 100 hot dogs. Line 2

(H/C) is incorrect because dividing the rate at which the contestant

ate hot dogs by the number of calories per hot dog does not result

in ﬁnding out the number of calories taken in from eating 100 hot

dogs. Line 3 (C

) is incorrect because this only involves the

number of calories per hot dog and does not involve a speciﬁc

number of hot dogs. Line 4 (H

) is incorrect because this only

involves the number of hot dogs eaten over time and does not

involve ﬁnding out the caloric intake. Line 5 (C)(H ) is incorrect

because it results in ﬁnding out the number of calories taken in

from one minute of eating, not the number of calories taken in

from eating 100 hot dogs.

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277. Column 1, line 2. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of liters of water lost in one hour of hiking

in the woods at a constant speed. For column 1, line 1 (W/S) is

incorrect because dividing the number of meters walked per liter

of water lost by the hiking speed does not result in ﬁnding out the

number of liters of water lost. Line 3 (1,000/W ) is incorrect

because dividing 1,000 by the rate at which water is lost does not

involve a unit of time. Line 4 (1,000/S) is incorrect because this

only involves the hiking speed and does not involve a unit of time.

Line 5 (W/1,000) is incorrect because dividing the rate at which

the water is lost by 1,000 diminishes the rate and does not result in

ﬁnding out the amount of water lost in one hour. Line 6 (S)(1,000)

is incorrect because dividing the speed by 1,000 diminishes the

speed and does not result in ﬁnding out the amount of water lost in

one hour.

Column 2, line 3. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of liters of water lost hiking 1,000 meters in

the woods at a constant speed. For column 2, line 1 (W/S) is

incorrect because dividing the number of meters walked per liter

of water lost by the hiking speed does not result in ﬁnding out the

number of liters of water lost. Line 2 (S/W ) is incorrect because

dividing the hiking speed by the number of meters walked per liter

of water lost does not involve 1,000 meters. Line 4 (1,000/S) is

incorrect because dividing the distance by the hiking speed doesn’t

result in the number of liters of water lost. Line 5 (W/1,000) is

incorrect because dividing the rate at which the water is lost by

1,000 diminishes the rate and does not result in ﬁnding out the

amount of water lost when walking 1,000 meters. Line 6 (S)(1,000)

is incorrect because dividing the speed by 1,000 diminishes the

speed and does not result in ﬁnding out the amount of water lost

when walking 1,000 meters.

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278. Column 1, line 6. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of calories used when a marathon runner

runs for one hour at a constant rate. Column 1, line 1 (500/C) is

incorrect because the question asks about the calories burned in

one hour, not when running 500 meters. Line 2 (500/M ) is

incorrect because the question asks about the calories burned in

one hour, not when running 500 meters. Line 3 (C/500) is

incorrect because the question asks about the calories burned in

one hour, not when running 500 meters. Line 4 (M/500) is

incorrect because the question asks about the calories burned in

one hour, not when running 500 meters. Line 5 (C/M ) is incorrect

because dividing the energy efﬁciency by the rate does not result in

ﬁnding out the number of calories used in one hour.

Column 2, line 1. The question asks about using two variables to

determine the number of calories used when a marathon runner

runs a 500-meter race at a constant rate. For column 2, line 2

(500/M ) is incorrect because the question asks about the number

of calories. Therefore, the distance must be divided by the energy

efﬁciency, not by the running rate. Line 3 (C/500) is incorrect

because the question asks about the number of calories. Therefore,

the distance must be divided by the energy efﬁciency, not the

energy efﬁciency divided by the distance. Line 4 (M/500) is

incorrect because this would result in a number of seconds, not a

number of calories. Line 5 (C/M ) is incorrect because dividing the

energy efﬁciency by the rate does not result in ﬁnding out the

number of calories used when running 500 meters. Line 6 (M/C) is

incorrect because dividing the rate by the energy efﬁciency does

not result in ﬁnding out the number of calories used when running

500 meters.

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279. Column 1, line 3. The question asks about determining a trait

that the imaginary pollution tritans has based on the details in the

paragraph. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because there are no

details to suggest that tritans decrease the number of eggs laid.

Line 2 is incorrect because the paragraph states that scientists are

“researching the source of the tritans,” so this does not support

the idea that tritans come from the water supply. Line 4 is

incorrect because the paragraph is focused on the effects on eggs,

not animals’ bodies. Line 5 is incorrect because the paragraph

states that tritans “weaken the shell of eggs,” not thicken the

eggshells.

Column 2, line 5. The question asks about determining a trait

that the imaginary pollution tritans must NOT have based on the

details in the paragraph. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because

there are no details in the paragraph to suggest that tritans do or

do not decrease the number of eggs laid. Line 2 is incorrect

because the paragraph states that scientists are “researching the

source of the tritans,” so tritans could come from the water supply.

Line 3 is incorrect because the paragraph states that fewer eggs

survive, so this is a trait of titans. Line 4 is incorrect because there

are no details about this in the paragraph, so it could be a trait

of titans.

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280. Column 1, line 1. The question asks about a trait that an

imaginary type of ﬁnancial exchange called an M.T.B. must have

based on the details in the paragraph. For column 1, line 2 is

incorrect because the paragraph states that there are new

regulations. Line 3 is incorrect because, while M.T.B. exchanges

greater than $250,000 must be acknowledged, being greater than

$250,000 is not necessarily a trait of M.T.B.s. Line 4 is incorrect

because, while M.T.B.s involving IPOs must be disclosed quarterly

(or every three months), this does not necessarily mean that all

M.T.B.s happen every three months. Line 5 is incorrect because

there are no details in the paragraph to suggest that all banks

conduct this type of exchange.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about a trait that must NOT

describe the imaginary type of ﬁnancial exchange called an M.T.B.

For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because the paragraph states that

certain types of M.T.B.s “must be disclosed to all shareholders.”

Line 3 is incorrect because the paragraph states that some M.T.B.

exchanges are greater than $250,000. Line 4 is incorrect because

there are no details to determine whether M.T.B. exchanges

happen every three months. Line 5 is incorrect because there are

no details in the paragraph to determine whether all banks conduct

this type of exchange.

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281. Column 1, line 4. The question asks about an imaginary type of

disease called spurnit and a trait that spurnit deﬁnitely has. For

column 1, line 1 is incorrect because, while the paragraph focuses

on diagnosing the disease in dogs, the paragraph never states that

the disease only occurs in dogs. Line 2 is incorrect because the

paragraph states that spurnit is unlike diseases that “cause an

increase in swelling in the glands.” Line 3 is incorrect because the

paragraph states that detection “can be difﬁcult.” Line 5 is

incorrect because, while the paragraph states that the disease

affects the tongue, the paragraph never describes the transmission

of the disease.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about an imaginary type of

disease called spurnit and a trait that spurnit deﬁnitely does NOT

have. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because the paragraph

describes diagnosing the disease in dogs. Line 3 is incorrect

because, while the paragraph states that detection “can be

difﬁcult,” it also states that symptoms can manifest and be detected

early. Line 4 is incorrect because the paragraph states that the

disease results in an “elevated level of white blood cells.” Line 5 is

incorrect because, while the paragraph states that the disease

affects the tongue, the paragraph never describes the transmission

of the disease.

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282. Column 1, line 4. The question asks about an imaginary type of

plant called poison senity and a characteristic that poison senity

deﬁnitely has. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because the

paragraph never states that poison senity causes fevers. Line 2 is

incorrect because the paragraph states that poison senity “thrives

only in a limited region of the Paciﬁc Northwest.” Line 3 is

incorrect because, while the paragraph states poison senity thrives

in the Paciﬁc Northwest, which tends to be damp, the paragraph

never states that poison senity grows best in damp climates. Line 5

is incorrect because no information is provided in the paragraph

about what happens if poison senity is swallowed.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about an imaginary type of

plant called poison senity and a characteristic that does NOT

describe poison senity. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because

poison senity could cause fevers; this information is not provided

in the paragraph. Line 3 is incorrect because poison senity could

thrive in damp climates, but no information speciﬁcally regarding

dampness is provided in the paragraph. Line 4 is incorrect because

the paragraph states that the oils from poison senity can transfer to

“more places” on the body, which suggests that the oils transfer

easily. Line 5 is incorrect because poison senity could be fatal if

swallowed, but no information about this is provided in the

paragraph.

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283. Column 1, line 2. The question asks about an imaginary type of

acne treatment called Clarens and a description that only pertains to

Clarens. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because the other acne

treatments or soaps could be used to wash the face, not just Clarens.

Line 3 is incorrect because, while the paragraph suggests that there is

a regimen involved using Clarens, there is no information to support

the idea that Clarens is the only product that involves a regimen.

Line 4 is incorrect because there is no information about “dyes,

perfumes, and chemicals” in the paragraph. Line 5 is incorrect

because, while the paragraph states that Clarens doesn’t irritate the

skin and so could be assumed to be gentle, there is no information to

suggest that other brands are not also gentle on the skin.

Column 2, line 4. The question asks about an imaginary type of

acne treatment called Clarens and a description that does NOT

pertain to Clarens. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because

Clarens includes a “simple tea tree oil facial wash,” so it could be

used to wash the face. Line 2 is incorrect because Clarens has “to-

go washes that contains salicylic acid,” so this form of salicylic acid

can be used outside the home. Line 3 is incorrect because the

paragraph states that Clarens comes in three parts, which suggests

that there is a regimen. Line 5 is incorrect because the paragraph

states that Clarens doesn’t irritate the skin, which suggests that it is

gentle on the skin.

284. Column 1, line 2. The question asks about the rate of increase in

carbon emissions for Country A that would cause Country A’s

carbon emissions to be the same as Country B’s carbon emissions

in 10 years and greater than Country B’s carbon emissions after 10

years. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because this would cause

Country A’s carbon emissions to increase by only 0.5 billion tons in

10 years, resulting in Country A’s carbon emissions reaching only

4.5 billion tons. This is not equal to Country B’s carbon emissions.

Line 3 is incorrect because this would cause Country A’s carbon

emissions to increase by 5 billion tons in 10 years, resulting in

Country A’s carbon emissions reaching 9 billion tons. There are no

rates provided for Country B that would cause it to reach 9 billion

tons of carbon emissions in 10 years. Line 4 is incorrect because

this would cause Country A to produce 14 billion tons of carbon

emissions in 10 years. In order for the countries to produce equal

carbon emissions, Country B would have to produce 9 billion tons

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more in 10 years, and there are no rates that support that increase

for Country B. Line 5 is incorrect because this would cause

Country A to produce 54 billion tons of carbon emissions in 10

years. In order for the countries to produce equal carbon emissions,

Country B would have to produce 49 billion tons more in 10 years,

and there are no rates that support that increase for Country B.

Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause Country A to produce

154 billion tons of carbon emissions in 10 years. In order for the

countries to produce equal carbon emissions, Country B would

have to produce 159 billion tons more in 10 years, and there are no

rates that support that increase for Country B.

Column 2, line 1. The question asks about the rate of increase in

carbon emissions for Country B that would cause Country B’s

carbon emissions to be the same as Country A’s carbon emissions

in 10 years and less than Country A’s carbon emissions after 10

years. For column 2, line 2 is incorrect because this would cause

Country B’s carbon emissions to increase by 1.5 billion tons in 10

years, resulting in Country B’s carbon emissions reaching 6.5

billion tons. There are no rates in column 2 for Country A that

would cause it to increase by 2.5 billion tons in 10 years. Line 3 is

incorrect because this would cause Country B’s carbon emissions

to increase by 5 billion tons in 10 years, resulting in Country B’s

carbon emissions reaching 10 billion tons. There are no rates in

column 2 for Country A that would cause it to reach 10 billion

tons of carbon emissions in 10 years. Line 4 is incorrect because

this would cause Country B to produce 15 billion tons of carbon

emissions in 10 years. In order for the countries to produce equal

carbon emissions, Country A would have to produce 11 billion

tons more in 10 years, and there are no rates that support that

increase for Country A. Line 5 is incorrect because this would

cause Country B to produce 55 billion tons of carbon emissions in

10 years. In order for the countries to produce equal carbon

emissions, Country A would have to produce 51 billion tons more

in 10 years, and there are no rates that support that increase for

Country A. Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause Country B

to produce 155 billion tons of carbon emissions in 10 years. In

order for the countries to produce equal carbon emissions, Country

A would have to produce 151 billion tons more in 10 years, and

there are no rates that support that increase for Country A.

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285. Column 1, line 5. The question asks about the rate of increase in

the cost of gas for Gas Station X that would cause Gas Station X’s

price for gas to be the same as Gas Station Y’s price for gas in four

weeks and less than Gas Station Y’s price for gas after four weeks.

For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because this would cause Gas

Station X’s price for gas to increase by only $0.04 in 4 weeks,

resulting in Gas Station X’s price for gas being less than Gas

Station Y’s price for gas (even if Gas Station Y’s price for gas

didn’t increase). Line 2 is incorrect because this would cause Gas

Station X’s price for gas to increase by only $0.20 in 4 weeks,

resulting in Gas Station X’s price for gas being less than Gas

Station Y’s price for gas (even if Gas Station Y’s price for gas

didn’t increase). Line 3 is incorrect because this would cause Gas

Station X’s price for gas to increase by only $0.40 in 4 weeks,

resulting in Gas Station X’s price for gas being less than Gas

Station Y’s price for gas (even if Gas Station Y’s price for gas

didn’t increase). Line 4 is incorrect because this would cause Gas

Station X’s price for gas to increase by $0.60, which would cause it

to be equal to Gas Station Y’s prices if Gas Station Y did not

increase its prices over four weeks. Line 6 is incorrect because this

would cause Gas Station X’s price of gas to increase by $1.80. In

order for both the gas stations to be charging the same price in 4

weeks, Gas Station Y’s price of gas would have to increase by $1.20

in four weeks, and there are no rates that support that increase.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about the rate of increase in

the cost of gas for Gas Station Y that would cause Gas Station Y’s

price for gas to be the same as Gas Station X’s price for gas in four

weeks and greater than Gas Station X’s price for gas after four

weeks. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because this would cause

Gas Station Y’s price for gas to increase by $0.04 in 4 weeks,

resulting in Gas Station Y’s price for gas being $4.04. Gas Station

X’s price of gas would have to increase by $0.64 in four weeks, and

there are no rates that support that increase. Line 3 is incorrect

because this would cause Gas Station Y’s price for gas to increase

by $0.40 in 4 weeks, resulting in Gas Station Y’s price for gas

being $4.40. Gas Station X’s price of gas would have to increase by

$1.00 in four weeks, and there are no rates that support that

increase. Line 4 is incorrect because this would cause Gas Station

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Y’s price for gas to increase by $0.60 in 4 weeks, resulting in Gas

Station Y’s price for gas being $4.60. Gas Station X’s price of gas

would have to increase by $1.20 in four weeks, and there are no

rates that support that increase. Line 5 is incorrect because this

would cause Gas Station Y’s price for gas to increase by $0.80 in 4

weeks, resulting in Gas Station Y’s price for gas being $4.80. Gas

Station X’s price of gas would have to increase by $1.40 in four

weeks, and there are no rates that support that increase. Line 6 is

incorrect because this would cause Gas Station Y’s price for gas to

increase by $1.80 in 4 weeks, resulting in Gas Station Y’s price for

gas being $5.80. Gas Station X’s price of gas would have to

increase by $1.40 in four weeks, and there are no rates that support

that increase.

286. Column 1, line 3. The question asks about the rate of increase in

student enrollment per year for University A that would cause

University A and University B to have the same number of

enrolled students in 5 years and for University A to have more

enrolled students than University B after ﬁve years. For column 1,

line 1 is incorrect because this would cause University A’s student

enrollment to increase by 2,000 students, resulting in 22,000

students enrolled at University A. This will not equal University

B’s enrollment. Line 2 is incorrect because this would cause

University A’s student enrollment to increase by 5,000, resulting

in 25,000 students enrolled in University A. There are no rates

that would cause University B to also have 25,000 students in ﬁve

years. Line 4 is incorrect because this would cause University A’s

student enrollment to increase by 9,000, resulting in 29,000

students enrolled in University A. There are no rates that would

cause University B to also have 29,000 students in ﬁve years. Line

5 is incorrect because this would cause University A’s student

enrollment to increase by 11,000, resulting in 31,000 students

enrolled in University A. There are no rates that would cause

University B to also have 31,000 students in ﬁve years. Line 6 is

incorrect because this would cause University A’s student

enrollment to increase by 13,000, resulting in 33,000 students

enrolled in University A. There are no rates that would cause

University B to also have 33,000 students in ﬁve years.

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Column 2, line 2. The question asks about the rate of increase in

student enrollment per year for University B that would cause

University A and University B to have the same number of

enrolled students in 5 years and for University B to have fewer

enrolled students than University A after ﬁve years. For column 2,

line 1 is incorrect because this would cause University B’s student

enrollment to increase by 2,000 students, resulting in 24,500

students enrolled at University B. There are no rates to cause

University A to have 24,500 students in ﬁve years. Line 3 is

incorrect because this would cause University B’s student

enrollment to increase by 7,500, resulting in 30,000 students

enrolled in University B. There are no rates that would cause

University A’s enrollment to increase by 10,000 students in ﬁve

years. Line 4 is incorrect because this would cause University B’s

student enrollment to increase by 9,000, resulting in 31,500

students enrolled in University B. There are no rates that would

cause University A’s enrollment to increase by 11,500 students in

ﬁve years. Line 5 is incorrect because this would cause University

B’s student enrollment to increase by 11,000, resulting in 33,500

students enrolled in University B. There are no rates that would

cause University A’s enrollment to increase by 13,500 students in

ﬁve years. Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause University

B’s student enrollment to increase by 13,000, resulting in 35,500

students enrolled in University B. There are no rates that would

cause University A’s enrollment to increase by 15,500 students in

ﬁve years.

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287. Column 1, line 2. The question asks about the rate of decrease in

the numbers of Species X that would cause there to be the same

number of members of Species X and Species Y in 10 years and for

there to be fewer members of Species X than Species Y in

subsequent years. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because this

would cause Species X to decrease by 200 members in 10 years,

which would equal the number of member of Species Y only if

Species Y did not decrease. Line 3 is incorrect because this would

cause Species X to decrease by 500 members in 10 years, which

would result in there being 300 members of Species X. Species Y

would have to decrease by 300 members in 10 years, and there is

no rate that supports this. Line 4 is incorrect because this would

cause Species X to decrease by 2,000 members in 10 years, which

would result in a negative number and so is not possible. Line 5 is

incorrect because this would cause Species X to decrease by 4,000

members in 10 years, which would result in a negative number and

so is not possible. Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause

Species X to decrease by 5,000 members in 10 years, which would

result in a negative number and so is not possible.

Column 2, line 1. The question asks about the rate of decrease in

the numbers of Species Y that would cause there to be the same

number of members of Species X and Species Y in 10 years and for

there to be more members of Species Y than Species X in

subsequent years. For column 2, line 2 is incorrect because this

would cause Species Y to decrease by 400 members in 10 years,

leaving 200 members of Species Y. There are no rates that would

result in there being 200 members of Species X in ten years. Line 3

is incorrect because this would cause Species Y to decrease by 500

members in 10 years, which would result in there being 100

members of Species Y. Species X would have to decrease by 700

members in 10 years, and there is no rate that supports this. Line 4

is incorrect because this would cause Species Y to decrease by

2,000 members in 10 years, which would result in a negative

number and so is not possible. Line 5 is incorrect because this

would cause Species Y to decrease by 4,000 members in 10 years,

which would result in a negative number and so is not possible.

Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause Species Y to decrease

by 5,000 members in 10 years, which would result in a negative

number and so is not possible.

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288. Column 1, line 3. The question asks about the rate of increase in

the number of minutes athlete A trains each week that would cause

athletes A and B to train the same number of minutes in seven

weeks and for athlete A to train more than athlete B in subsequent

weeks. For column 1, line 1 is incorrect because this would cause

athlete A’s training to increase by only 21 minutes in 7 weeks,

resulting in athlete A training for 201 minutes. This is not equal to

athlete B’s training minutes (even if the number of minutes athlete

B trains does not increase). Line 2 is incorrect because this would

cause athlete A’s training to increase by only 35 minutes in 7

weeks, resulting in athlete A training for 215 minutes. This is not

equal to athlete B’s training minutes (even if the number of minutes

athlete B trains does not increase). Line 4 is incorrect because this

would cause athlete A’s training to increase to a total of 355

minutes by 7 weeks. There are no rates that would cause athlete B

to also train 355 minutes per week by 7 weeks. Line 5 is incorrect

because this would cause athlete A’s training to increase to a total of

390 minutes by 7 weeks. There are no rates that would cause

Athlete B to also train 390 minutes per week by 7 weeks. Line 6 is

incorrect because this would cause athlete A’s training to increase

to a total of 530 minutes by 7 weeks. There are no rates that would

cause athlete B to also train 530 minutes per week by 7 weeks.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about the rate of increase in

the number of minutes athlete B trains each week that would cause

athletes A and B to train the same number of minutes in seven

weeks and for athlete B to train for fewer minutes than athlete A in

subsequent weeks. For column 2, line 1 is incorrect because this

would cause athlete B’s training to increase by only 21 minutes in 7

weeks, resulting in athlete B training for 271 minutes. There are

no rates that would cause athlete A to train for 271 minutes per

week after 7 weeks. Line 3 is incorrect because this would cause

athlete B’s training to increase by only 105 minutes in 7 weeks,

resulting in athlete B training for 355 minutes. There are no rates

that would cause athlete A to train for 355 minutes by 7 weeks.

Line 4 is incorrect because this would cause athlete B’s training to

increase to a total of 425 minutes by 7 weeks. There are no rates

that would cause athlete A to also train 425 minutes per week by

7 weeks. Line 5 is incorrect because this would cause athlete B’s

training to increase to a total of 460 minutes by 7 weeks. There are

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no rates that would cause athlete A to also train 460 minutes per

week by 7 weeks. Line 6 is incorrect because this would cause

athlete B’s training to increase to a total of 600 minutes by 7 weeks.

There are no rates that would cause athlete A to also train 600

minutes per week by 7 weeks.

289. Column 1, line 1. The question asks about the meal option that

could be added to both menus and fulﬁll the menu requirements.

For column 1, lines 2 and 4 are incorrect because these would

result in neither menu being vegetarian. Lines 3 and 5 are

incorrect because these would result in both menus having more

than two hot options. Line 6 is incorrect because this would result

in neither menu being vegetarian and both menus having more

than two hot options.

Column 2, line 6. The question asks about the meal option that

could NOT be added to either menu in order to fulﬁll the menu

requirements. For column 2, line 1 could be added, so this is

incorrect. Lines 2 and 4 would result in Menu 1 not being

vegetarian, but they could be added to Menu 2. Lines 3 and 5

would result in Menu 2 having too many hot options, but they

could be added to Menu 1.

290. Column 1, line 3. The question asks about an event that could be

added to either day of the spring festival schedule and meet the

requirements for the festival. For column 1, lines 1, 2, and 5 are

incorrect because these events would result in neither day having

four events for children. Line 4 is incorrect because this would

result in neither day having a majority of events located in the

Cherry Esplanade.

Column 2, line 1. The question asks about an event that could

NOT be added to either day of the festival schedule as it would

not meet the requirements for the festival. For column 2, line 2 is

incorrect because this event could be added to Day 1 in order to

have four events for children. Line 3 is incorrect because this

would cause both days to have a majority of events in the Cherry

Esplanade. Line 4 is incorrect because this event could be added to

Day 1 in order to have four events for children. Line 5 is incorrect

because this would cause both days to have a majority of events in

the Cherry Esplanade.

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Questions

291. Column 1, line 5. The question asks about the painting that could

be added to either room that would allow the room to meet the

museum’s requirements. For column 1, lines 1, 2, and 3 are

incorrect because, if any of these paintings were placed in Room 1,

then Room 1 would not have a majority of paintings include skulls

or bones and would not have four paintings from 1935 or later.

Line 4 is incorrect because, if used in Room 1, then Room 1 would

have too many paintings about buildings.

Column 2, line 4. The question asks about the painting that could

NOT work for both rooms and meet the museum’s requirements.

For column 2, lines 1 and 3 are incorrect because these paintings

could be added to Room 2 and a majority of the paintings in Room

2 would still include skulls and bones. Line 2 is incorrect because it

could be added to Room 2 and Room 2 would have four paintings

from 1935 or later. Line 5 is incorrect because it could be added to

Room 1 and a majority of the paintings in Room 1 would include

skulls and bones. Also, it could be added to Room 2 and Room 2

would contain four paintings from 1935 or later.

292. Column 1, line 3. The question asks about the poet who could be

added to the event’s schedule for either morning or afternoon and

fulﬁll the requirements. For column 1, lines 1, 2, and 4 are

incorrect because if any of these poets were included in the

morning or afternoon sections, then the morning section would

not have four women poets or a majority of poets born after 1970.

Line 5 is incorrect because if this poet were included, then the

morning and afternoon sections would not have four women poets.

Column 2, line 2. The question asks about the poet who could

NOT be added to the event’s schedule for either morning or

afternoon and fulﬁll the requirements. For column 2, lines 1, 3,

and 4 are incorrect because any of these poets could be added to

the afternoon in order for the afternoon to have four women poets.

Line 5 is incorrect because this poet could be added to the

morning in order for the morning to have a majority of poets born

after 1970.

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Table Analysis

The table analysis questions in the integrated reasoning portion

of the GMAT will require you to analyze and interpret information from

multiple sources, and to use and apply the data in a variety of ways. The data

displayed in tables will be used to draw conclusions, make inferences, and

identify statements that support or refute the information and relationships

that exist between different sets of information. Speciﬁc content knowledge

is not needed; however, being able to identify relationships between, make

inferences, and determine when certain conditions are met based on infor-

mation in a table will be tested in this section. Use of a calculator is per-

mitted on this section of the test.

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Questions

Test-Taking Tips

■

Read directions carefully before beginning this portion of the

text. Read through what is expected for the question and

identify what information you will speciﬁcally be looking for

within the data.

■

Understand the format of the question for this section.

Although content-speciﬁc knowledge is not necessary, you will

be making conclusions based on information given to you.

■

Read questions thoroughly and carefully. Read through the

entire question so you are aware of what is necessary to choose

the best option. Be aware of whether the question is asking you

to choose an option that supports or refutes the information in

the table, or whether the question is asking you to choose the

statement that says EXCEPT.

■

Use testing time wisely. Be sure to pace yourself and not spend

too much time on an individual question. It is often helpful to

eliminate choices before committing to one.

■

Look for trends in data. The trends that exist in the data will

assist you in making inferences and choosing the best options

for the question.

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Questions

Set 12

Now it is time to answer GMAT table analysis practice questions that have

been designed to test your integrated reasoning skills. Good luck!

293.

The following table shows the total number of fast-food

restaurants and Type-2 diabetes statistics for six cities in the

United States with similar square mileage and population size.

Which of the following CANNOT be inferred by the data

represented in the table below?

Fast-Food Restaurants and Population of Type-2 Diabetics

Town

Number of

fast-food

restaurants

% of reported

children

diagnosed

with Type-2

diabetes under

the age of 16

Overall % of

population

with Type-2

diabetes

Rockville 24 8 15

Medford 29 15 19

Pittsﬁeld 21 5 7

Beaver Creek 37 19 23

Greene 40 20 25

Lewistown 28 7 7

a. The city with the most fast-food restaurants will also have the

highest overall occurrence of diabetes.

b. The city with the highest percentage of children with Type-2

diabetes also has the highest number of adults with Type-2

diabetes.

c. The more fast-food restaurants in a city, the more childhood

diabetics it will have.

d. Other factors besides fast-food restaurants, such as culture and

economy, may inﬂuence a city’s diabetic population.

373

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Questions

294.

Scientists wanted to analyze risk factors for a certain lung ailment.

Some scientists argue that the presence of a certain gene (labeled

gene Lfac) is responsible for a person’s chance of developing the

disease, while others from the group claim the pollution from a ten-

year-old factory in the region is more to blame. The following table

shows 10 patients who have the disease, their level of toxin exposure

based on distance of their homes from the factory, and whether they

have the Lfac gene. Which of the statements can be supported by the

information in the table?

Environmental and Genetic Information on Patients with

Lung Disease

Patient Toxin exposure (%) Gene Lfac present?

1 20 Yes

2 45 No

3 84 No

4 34 Yes

5 62 Yes

6 31 Yes

7 75 No

8 33 Yes

9 77 No

10 58 No

a. The greater the toxin exposure the more likely a person is to get

the disease, whether they have the

LFac gene or not.

b. The disease is caused only by genetic factors.

c. The closer a person lives to the factory, the more likely he or she

is to acquire the disease.

d. It is not possible to determine whether genetics or toxin exposure

increase a person’s chances of developing the disease.

374

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Questions

295.

In 2011, 10 different companies reported sales for products they

advertised for on two social media websites. Data was collected for

online sales of products and was determined by customer surveys.

Which of the following statements is true, according to the data in

the table?

Change in Sales of Products 1 and 2, for Companies

1–10 (percent)

Social Media Site #1 Social Media Site #2

Company

Product

1 +2.0 +1.7 +3.0 +2.7

2 +2.3 –0.3 +2.5 +1.0

3 –4.6 –2.0 –4.0 –2.1

4 +3.0 +3.2 +2.0 –1.5

5 –2.9 +1.0 –3.6 +0.5

6 –5.0 –2.1 +2.5 +2.5

7 +3.1 –2.0 +1.0 +1.7

8 –0.3 –1.2 +6.2 +4.7

9 +1.0 –1.0 –3.0 –2.2

10 –1.0 –2.5 +4.3 +4.3

a. Product 2 had a higher sales increase than Product 1 on both

websites.

b. Company 1 was not honest when reporting sales of both products.

c. Overall, the second social media site was more effective for

increasing sales of both products.

d. Company 2 was not honest when reporting sales of both products.

375

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Questions

296.

The data presented in the following table shows the population of

snakes and the population of rabbits in a meadow ecosystem for a

10-year time period. What can be inferred from the data in the

table?

Rabbit and Snake Populations in a Meadow Ecosystem,

2000–2008

Year Snake population Rabbit population

2000 100 250

2001 120 210

2002 160 185

2003 130 170

2004 110 190

2005 95 215

2006 85 230

2007 90 245

2008 100 235

a. The population of snakes is inﬂuenced by the population of

available rabbits.

b. New sources of prey were found by the snakes between 2000

and 2008.

c. There was an increase in other predators of rabbits from 2001

to 2002.

d. If the rabbit population were to double in 2009, the snake pop-

ulation would double as well.

376

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Questions

297.

A team of botanists wanted to ﬁgure out what sort of conditions

were best for growing a type of ﬂowering plant. The following

table shows the variables that were tested and the results of the

experiment. All other conditions were kept the same, and the

plants came from the same package of seeds. What can we infer are

the best conditions from the data in the table?

Effects of Temperature and Water on Plant Blossoms

Plant Temperature (°F) Amount of water (mL) # of blossoms

1 60 25.0 2

2 60 50.0 2

3 60 75.0 0

4 65 25.0 3

5 65 50.0 4

6 65 75.0 1

7 70 25.0 8

8 70 50.0 10

9 70 75.0 2

10 75 25.0 13

11 75 50.0 10

12 75 75.0 9

13 80 25.0 16

14 80 50.0 12

15 80 75.0 10

a. The plant prefers cool, damp growing conditions.

b. The plant prefers cool, dry growing conditions.

c. The plant prefers warm, damp growing conditions.

d. The plant prefers warm, dry growing conditions.

377

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Questions

298.

Five private universities released statistics on the top three college

majors at their schools, graduation rates for each major, and

graduates who reported having a degree-related job in their ﬁeld

within 12 months of graduation. The following table represents

the information that was released. Which of the following

statements CANNOT be inferred from the data in the table?

Top Three Majors, Graduation Rates, and Graduates with

a Degree-Related Job

University Top three majors

Four-year

graduation

rate within

each major

(%)

Graduates

with a

degree-

job (%)

Abracadabra

University

Biology

Chemistry

Zoology

82.5

83.0

87.0

75.0

80.0

Crescent

Moon

College

Liberal Arts

Finance

Business

Administration

90.0

91.5

90.0

70.0

80.0

75.0

Westﬁeld

University

Women’s Studies

Biology

Liberal Arts

92.0

93.5

95.0

50.0

89.0

70.0

Letterbox

University

Chemistry

Mathematics

Business

Administration

95.0

97.0

95.0

90.0

91.0

80.0

Cranberry

College

Botany

Biology

Zoology

85.0

83.0

95.0

96.0

88.0

378

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Questions

a. Crescent Moon College has the most successful networking and

job placement of the universities listed.

b. In the current economic conditions, it is probably more chal-

lenging to get a job in the liberal arts than it is in a science-

related ﬁeld.

c. Students who require more than four years to graduate will

likely have a harder time ﬁnding a job post-college.

d. Those who graduate from Westﬁeld University with degrees

that are not ranked in the table will probably have more success

ﬁnding a job within 12 months of graduation.

299. The following table shows the top ten United States imports and

exports for the year 2008. The data in the table supports which of

the following statements?

a. The United States is self-sufﬁcient for many facets of its trans-

portation industry.

b. Passenger cars make up a higher percentage of exports than

imports for the United States.

c. Other nations are dependent on the United States for civilian

aircraft.

d. The United States has little demand for foreign-made clothing.

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501 GMAT

Questions

Top Ten Imports and Exports for the United States, 2008

Imports Exports

Rank Product

% of

total

imports

Rank Product

% of

total

exports

1 Crude oil 16.3 2 Semicon-

ductors

3.9

8 Cotton

apparel

2.4 5 Automotive

accessories

3.1

3 Medicinal

preparations

3.8 9 Te l e c o m -

munications

equipment

2.6

4 Automotive

accessories

3.1 7 Fuel oil 2.7

5 Other

household

goods

2.9 6 Other

industrial

machines

3.0

2 Passenger

cars

6.0 1 Civilian

aircraft

5.7

6 Computer

accessories

2.8 10 Plastic

materials

2.5

10 Video

equipment

1.9 4 Pharma-

ceutical

prepara-

tions

3.1

7 Petroleum

products

2.5 3 Passenger

cars

3.9

9 Telecom-

munications

equipment

2.1 8 Organic

chemicals

2.6

380

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Questions

300. A school district in Maryland integrated a state-funded reading

program into its curriculum for four years. The same program was

integrated in a school district in Virginia. The passing rates for

elementary (K–5), middle (6–8), and high school (9–12) are shown

in the following table. Which statement is true about the

implementation of the reading program?

Passing test rates for Virginia and Maryland school districts,

before and after state-funded reading program (percent)

State

Grade Level

K–3 4–6 7–9 10–12

Before

pro-

gram

After

pro-

gram

Before

pro-

gram

After

pro-

gram

Before

pro-

gram

After

pro-

gram

Before

pro-

gram

After

pro-

gram

Virginia 85 78 75 65 82 87 82 89

Maryland 80 78 84 75 79 80 82 85

a. As grade level increased, so did passing rate, both prior to and

after the reading program.

b. The program was unsuccessful in Virginia.

c. The program was unsuccessful in Maryland.

d. The reading program was more effective for older students.

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Questions

301.

The following table shows the percent of commuters and the type

of transportation they primarily use, for six countries. Which of

the statements that follows can be supported by the data in the

table?

Common Modes of Transportation for Commuters

Country

Transportation Type (percent)

Bus

Walk/

Bicycle Train Automobile

Brazil 30 50 10 10

Argentina 40 30 15 15

Germany 30 20 25 25

United Kingdom 30 10 40 20

France 20 30 35 15

United States 20 10 10 60

a. Of all the listed countries, pollution is probably lowest in Brazil.

b. South Americans commute with the automobile more fre-

quently than Europeans.

c. Mass transit is the most common way to commute in the

United States.

d. Mass transit is the most common way to commute for the

majority of the countries listed.

382

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Questions

302.

A school in New York State has experienced a decrease in

graduation rate for the past six years. The school wants to

determine some of the outside factors that could be playing a role

in the decreasing rates. Behavior reports and juvenile arrests of

students enrolled at the school were the focus of the study. Which

of the following statements can be made, based on the information

in the table?

Graduation Rates, Behavior Reports, and Juvenile Arrests,

2002–2011

Year

Graduation

rate (%)

Behavior

reports (total)

Juvenile arrests

(total)

2002 54 416 5

2003 55 419 5

2004 55 415 4

2005 57 400 4

2006 52 436 8

2007 49 482 11

2008 45 510 16

2009 41 540 20

2010 37 593 25

2011 34 704 31

a. As the total number of behavior reports increases, so do gradua-

tion rates.

b. As graduation rates decrease, behavior reports do the same, but

juvenile arrests increase.

c. Juvenile arrests and behavior reports have been steadily increas-

ing since 2006, and the graduation rate has been steadily

decreasing.

d. Students who do not have behavior issues both in and out of

school make up most of the graduating class each year

383

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Questions

303.

The following table shows four different cable providers and the

change in their rates for the 2012 subscription year. All four of the

companies have experienced a change in their clientele based on

renewal subscriptions, also shown in the table. What is a

reasonable conclusion based on the information given?

Changes in Cable and Internet Costs for Cable Providers

A, B, C, and D

Cable

provider

% change

in cost of

wireless

Internet

% change in

cost of cable

% of customers

who re-signed

contract for 2012

service year

A +2.0 +5.0 70%

B +4.0 +5.0 65%

C +5.0 +3.0 85%

D +6.0 +2.0 90%

a. The rising cost of cable has more of an inﬂuence over whether a

customer will re-sign than the cost of the Internet.

b. The rising cost of Internet service has more of an inﬂuence over

whether a customer will re-sign than the cost of cable.

c. Changing Internet and cable costs have little effect on whether

a customer decides to re-sign with the company

d. Customers are not likely to renew a subscription for a year of

service if the wireless Internet price increases.

384

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Questions

304.

The rate of magazine versus tablet or other device subscription for

three magazines is shown in the following table. Which of the

following statements CANNOT be supported by the information

in the table?

Tablet and Print Magazine Subscriptions for Three

Magazines, 2009–2012 (thousands)

Year

Fashion Forward Sports Weekly Classy Cooking

Print Tablet Print Tablet Print Tablet

2009 25 4 15 2 20 5

2010 28 10 15 4 22 10

2011 32 14 13 7 21 15

2012 35 18 10 10 20 29

a. All three of the magazines have seen an increase in tablet sub-

scriptions for the past four years.

b. People interested in fashion are more likely to get their infor-

mation from a tablet than those interested in cooking.

c. People interested in sports are less likely to have a print sub-

scription than those interested in fashion.

d. People interested in cooking are more likely to have a tablet

subscription than people interested in sports

385

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Questions

305. The number of new hires for the year 2011 is displayed in the

following table, for four various industries within a county in

Ohio. Which statement is true about the data in the table?

New Hires, Mason County Ohio, 2011

Industry

Number of new

hires

Change in new hire

employment from

year prior

Education 173 +5%

Civil Service 200 +5%

Service Industry 210 +10%

Health Care 205 +5%

a. The healthcare industry hired more new employees for the year

2011 then the civil service industry.

b. There was an increased demand for teachers in 2011.

c. As new hires and employment increase, there is an increased

demand for employees in the service industry.

d. There were more people hired in the service industry and

healthcare than in education and civil service.

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Questions

306.

A survey was conducted with groups of people between the ages of

14 and 17 in different states in the United States, measuring how

young people typically spent their time outside of school. The

results of the surveys that were given are displayed in the following

table. Which of the following statements is a reasonable inference

based on the survey results?

How Teenagers Spent Their Free Time, 2010

State

Activities

Tele-

vision

Com-

puter/

Inter-

net use

Sports

or time

outside

Books

and

maga-

zines Work Other

Florida 25% 30% 10% 10% 20% 5%

Vermont 15% 15% 30% 15% 20% 5%

Minnesota 20% 25% 20% 10% 15% 10%

Oregon 15% 15% 25% 15% 25% 5%

Louisiana 20% 30% 20% 5% 15% 10%

Utah 5% 10% 30% 15% 35% 5%

a. Teenagers in northern regions tend to spend more time outside

than teenagers in southern regions.

b. Teenagers in southern states are most likely than teenagers in

northern states to spend time on the Internet in their spare

time.

c. Most people in Vermont get their ﬁrst job as a teenager.

d. More teenagers spend time watching television than using the

Internet.

387

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Questions

307.

A study was conducted to see whether people who drove red cars

were more likely to be written a speeding ticket. The number of

speeding tickets written between 2005 and 2009 for red, black, and

silver cars is displayed in the following table. Which of the

following conclusions can be made, based on the data in the table?

Speeding Tickets Given by Car Color, Monroe County,

2005–2009

Year

Tickets given

to red cars

Tickets given

to black cars

Tickets given

to silver cars

2005 600 500 550

2006 700 400 500

2007 640 450 600

2008 800 600 700

2009 750 550 600

Total tickets

written

3,490 2,500 2,950

a. People driving silver cars are most likely to be given a speeding

ticket.

b. People who drove black cars in 2009 were written the most

speeding tickets.

c. The police wrote more total speeding tickets in 2007 than any

of the other years.

d. People who drive red cars are more likely to get a speeding

ticket in Monroe County than those in black and silver cars.

388

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Questions

308.

A laboratory conducted a study on how certain antioxidants

regulate cell division in a variety of groups of the same specimen.

The purpose of the study was to see whether certain antioxidants

can be directly linked to uncontrolled cell division (cancer) in

living organisms, when exposed to cancer-causing agents. The

results of the study are displayed in the following table. What is a

possible inference based on the data the scientists gathered?

Effects of Various Antioxidants on Uncontrolled

Cell Division

Antioxidant

Primary food

source

% of

specimens

who had

uncontrolled

cell division

(control)

% of specimens

who had

uncontrolled

cell division

(experimental)

Alpha-

carotene

Tomatoes,

squash

20.0 12.0

Beta-

carotene

Squash, sweet

potatoes

20.0 11.0

Lutein Spinach, kale 20.0 4.0

Lycopene Cooked red

tomatoes

20.0 13.0

Zeaxanthin Kale, collard

greens

20.0 4.5

a. Lutein and lycopene are the antioxidants that showed the most

beneﬁcial impact on the specimens, so a diet rich in them would

mean a decreased cancer risk.

b. Diets rich in dark green vegetables could mean a decreased

cancer risk.

c. Diets rich in alpha-carotene and beta-carotene will increase the

risk of cancer if exposed to cancer-causing agents.

d. Red and orange vegetables are an excellent source of

zeaxanthin.

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Questions

309.

The total number of medals for the seven countries who won the

most gold medals at the 2012 Summer Olympic Games is shown

in the following table. Which statement is true about the data in

the table?

Medal Count for the 2012 Summer Olympic Games

Country Gold Silver Bronze Total

United States 46 29 29 104

China 38 27 23 88

Great Britain 29 17 19 65

Russia 24 26 32 82

Korea 13 8 7 28

Germany 11 19 14 44

France 7 11 12 34

a. The country with the most total medals won also had the high-

est medal count for gold, silver, and bronze.

b. The country with the ﬁfth highest gold medal count also had

the ﬁfth highest total medal count.

c. France had the least number of gold medals as well as the low-

est total medal count.

d. Russia had the fourth highest gold and bronze medal counts.

390

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Questions

310.

A certain pheromone produced by the female monarch butterﬂy

has been identiﬁed as responsible for their reproductive success.

The same pheromone has been tied to other species of butterﬂies

but they do not emit it as much as monarchs do, and their

reproductive rates are also signiﬁcantly lower. Scientists want to

see if increased exposure to the pheromone will be effective in

encouraging mating among an endangered species of butterﬂy. Six

test groups, with 50 male and 50 female butterﬂies, were separated

and exposed to different amounts of the pheromone to see if it

increased the mating activity between them. Which of the

following can be inferred from the data in the table?

Mating among Butterﬂies, Various Pheromone Exposure

Test

group

Amount of pheromone

exposure (%) times

normal amount

Number of butterﬂies

who mated during

exposure

1 0 0

2 20 12

3 40 36

4 60 74

5 80 94

6 100 90

a. The butterﬂies would probably mate the most when exposed to

50% pheromone levels.

b. Controlling the amount of pheromone exposure would be an

effective way for scientists to promote reproduction among

these butterﬂies.

c. An increase in pheromone exposure always leads to increased

mating activity between butterﬂies.

d. Exposure to controlled levels of pheromones would not encour-

age mating between the endangered butterﬂies.

391

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Questions

Answers—Set 12

293. c. The city of Lewistown has 28 fast-food restaurants, which is

four more than Rockville, but has 1% fewer diabetics under the

age of 16, and 8% fewer overall diabetics. Choice a is incorrect

because Greene, the city with the most fast-food restaurants, does

have the highest total occurrence of diabetes. Choice b is incorrect

because Greene, the city with the highest percentage of children

with Type-2 diabetes also has the highest total population with

diabetes. Choice d is incorrect because other factors may

contribute to diabetes, as shown by Lewistown not having the least

number of fast-food restaurants but having the lowest occurrence

of diabetes.

294. d. Since all the patients have the lung disease, and all have some

degree of toxin exposure, and only some have the gene, it is not

possible to tell which one is responsible using this data. Choice a is

incorrect because only some of the patients have the gene, but all

are sick. Choice b is incorrect because the data does not show

conclusive evidence of what causes the disease. Choice c is

incorrect because all of the patients had some degree of exposure.

295. c. For both products, social media site 2 had higher overall sales.

Choice a is incorrect because Product 1 had a higher sales increase

than Product 2 for both websites. Choice b is incorrect because

based on the data, that inference cannot be made. Choice d is

incorrect because based on the data in the table, that inference

cannot be made.

296. a. As the rabbit population increases or decreases, the snake

population shows an opposite trend. Choice b cannot be supported

because there is no data that can support the deﬁnite presence of

other prey. Choice c is incorrect because there is no data in the

table that can support the deﬁnite presence of other predators.

Choice d is incorrect because the populations do not exactly mimic

each other.

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297. d. The plant had the most blossoms at the highest temperature

with the least amount of water. Choice a is incorrect because the

plant had fewer blossoms at the lower temperatures. Choice b is

incorrect because the plant had no blossoms at the lowest

temperature when given the most amount of water. Choice c is

incorrect because the plant had the fewest blossoms under the

wettest conditions for the warmest temperatures.

298. b. The data shows both of the universities that have liberal arts as

a top-three major have 12-month job placement at 70.0%. This is

the lowest percent of job placement besides women’s studies.

Choice a is incorrect because some of the other universities have

higher job placement rates for their top three majors. Choice c is

incorrect because there is no evidence in the table that could lead

to an inference about students who take more than four years to

graduate. Choice d is incorrect because there is no data in the table

that provides any information about unlisted majors; therefore,

an inference about other majors cannot be made based on the

given data.

299. c. Civilian aircraft is the United States’ highest-ranking export.

Choice a is incorrect because the United States’ top export is crude

oil and its second top import is passenger cars. Choice b is

incorrect because passenger cars make up a higher percentage of

imports (6.0%) than exports (3.9%). Choice d is incorrect because

cotton apparel is one of the top imports, at rank number eight.

300. d. Students in the 7–9 and 10–12 groups showed an increase in

reading scores for both states. Choice a is incorrect because fewer

students in the 4–6 age group passed in Virginia than the K–3

group both prior to and after the program was implemented.

Choice b is incorrect because some student groups in Virginia

showed an increase in passing rate after the reading program was

implemented. Choice c is incorrect because some student groups

in Maryland showed an increase in passing rate after the reading

program was implemented.

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301. d. Except for Brazil and the United States, over 50% of

commuters from the other four countries rely on the bus and/or

train. Choice a is incorrect because it is an inference that cannot be

directly supported with the evidence in the table. Choice b is

incorrect because the European countries have an overall higher

percentage of commuters using the automobile. Choice c is

incorrect because the majority of Americans (60%) commute by

automobile.

302. c. The graduation rate decreases from 52% to 34% between 2006

and 2011. The behavior reports increase from 436 to 704 and the

juvenile arrests increase from 8 to 31. Choice a is incorrect because

as behavior reports increase, graduation rates decrease. Choice b is

incorrect because as graduation rates decrease, both behavior

reports and juvenile arrests decrease. Choice d is incorrect because

none of the data in the table accounts for factors besides behavior

problems in school and juvenile arrests.

303. a. Although cable provider D increased Internet cost by 6.0% (the

highest) they increased the cost of cable by 2.0% (the lowest) and

they also had the highest percent of customers who re-signed their

contract. Choice b is incorrect because although cable provider A

only increased their Internet service by 2.0%, they increased their

cable cost by 5.0%, but only had 70% of people renew for 2012.

Choice c is incorrect because none of the companies had a 100%

renewal rate for 2012. Choice d is incorrect because all the

companies raised their Internet prices, and all experienced renewal

of contracts.

304. b. Fashion Forward magazine has 18,000 tablet subscriptions, but

Classy Cooking has 29,000. Choice a is incorrect because tablet

subscriptions for the four years given increased for all the

magazines. Choice c is incorrect because Fashion Forward had

35,000 print subscriptions, which is almost twice as many as their

tablet subscriptions. Sports Weekly has an equal number of tablet

and print magazine subscriptions. Choice d is incorrect because

29,000 people have a tablet subscription, while 10,000 have one for

Sports Weekly.

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305. d. There were 415 total people hired for healthcare and the

service industry, which is more than the 373 hired in the education

and civil service ﬁelds. Choice a is incorrect because the healthcare

ﬁeld hired 205 new employees, and the civil service ﬁeld hired 200.

Choice b is incorrect because the education ﬁeld does not specify

teachers only. Choice c is incorrect because it is not possible to

determine whether there is a correlation between service industry

hires and employment in other ﬁelds.

306. b. Based on the results of the survey, 30% of teenagers from

Florida and Louisiana spent time on the Internet, compared to

15% in Vermont and 15% in Oregon, and 25% in Minnesota.

Choice a is incorrect because teenagers in Utah spend the same

amount of time outside as those in Vermont. Choice c is incorrect

because the data in the table does not account for ﬁrst jobs of older

people in the state. Choice d is incorrect because for all the states

the percentage of teenagers who spend time on the computer is

equal to or higher than the percentage who spend time with

television.

307. d. According to the total number of speeding tickets for each color

of car, red cars had the most tickets written. Choice a is incorrect

because there were 2,950 tickets written to silver cars for the time

period, but 3,490 were written for red cars. Choice b is incorrect

because black cars were written a total of 550 tickets in 2009,

behind both silver and red cars. Choice c is incorrect because

police wrote 1,690 tickets in 2007 but 2,100 in 2008.

308. b. The data shows that green vegetables—kale, spinach, and

collard greens—had the least number of specimens that had

uncontrolled cell division. Choice a is incorrect because the

specimens exposed to lycopene showed a 13.0% likelihood of

acquiring cancer, which is higher than that of zeaxanthin, which

showed a 4.5% cancer occurrence. Choice c is incorrect because

the experimental groups for alpha-carotene and beta-carotene

showed a decrease in uncontrolled cell division when compared to

the control group. Choice d is incorrect because the primary

sources of zeaxanthin are dark green vegetables.

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309. a. The United States had 46 gold medals, and 104 medals total,

which is the highest for the data given. Choice b is incorrect

because Korea had the ﬁfth highest number of gold medals, but

was seventh in total medal count. Choice c is incorrect because

France had a total medal count of 34, which is more than Korea

and therefore not the least. Choice d is incorrect because Russia

had the highest number of bronze medals, not the fourth.

310. b. Mating activity increased between the butterﬂies as the amount

of pheromone exposure increased, except when they were exposed

to 100% of the pheromone, where four less butterﬂies mated.

However, there was a steady increase in the mating activity

between the butterﬂies as the amount of exposure increased.

Choice a is incorrect because if the data follows the trend in the

table, a 50% exposure would lead to somewhere between 36 and

74 butterﬂies mating, and this is less than when they were exposed

to even higher levels. Choice c is incorrect because when the

butterﬂies were exposed to 100% of the pheromone levels, four

fewer butterﬂies mated than at 80% exposure. Choice d is

incorrect because more, not less, butterﬂies mated as the

pheromone levels increased.

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Multisource

Reasoning

The multisource reasoning section of the GMAT is a test of your

ability to synthesize information from a variety of sources (usually two or

three) to arrive at reasonable inferences and logical conclusions. In today’s

information-rich environment, we are often called on to connect pieces of

data that we receive across a variety of communication types—e-mail, let-

ters, text messages, editorials, manifests and contracts, and so on—as well

as to draw and support suppositions about the ways in which those data

might interact in a wide array of circumstances. To be able to create an

inferential link between such sources and to draw empirically valid con-

clusions from them is a valuable skill in today’s detail-oriented business

environment.

This section presents information broken into segments that are typically

300 words or fewer. Skim through the paragraphs to review the exchange

of information and then assess the questions and answers according to the

presented data. Be sure to read the question stems carefully. A few will require

a single response (e.g., multiple-choice questions), but the majority will

require that you select one of two or three possible responses for each part

of the question (e.g., “Yes or No” responses to three- or four-question seg-

ments). To be credited with a correct response for this latter type, you must

answer all the parts correctly. Please note that questions are independent of

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one another, so that you will not be asked to answer one correctly to cor-

rectly answer another. Once you have submitted a response to a given ques-

tion, you cannot return to it, so select your responses with care.

Test-Taking Tips

Maybe the most important thing to keep in mind about the multisource

reasoning section of the GMAT is that the material is loaded with infor-

mation that you will never be asked questions about. Much like the read-

ing comprehension component, multisource reasoning questions are

designed to lure test takers into becoming bogged down in extraneous data

and information. Remember always that you are not being tested on your

ability to memorize information! Keeping this in mind will help you to for-

mulate and enact an effective and efﬁcient approach to the section.

Step One: See the Big Picture

As with the reading comprehension section, a sensible strategy for tackling

multisource reasoning questions is to ﬁrst skim through the passages to get

a broad sense of the information contained therein. It’s enough at this point

to be able to say, “This is an exchange of offers for the possible acquisition

of a new online business,” or “These are e-mails between a manager and

her human resources ofﬁcer concerning employee productivity.” You may

want to break the tabs down into very simple statements to help you to

keep track of the ﬂow of information. For example: “Para 1: The manager

thinks her staff is underproducing. Para 2: The HR ofﬁcer tries to prove

otherwise. Para 3: The manager presents more data to the contrary.” Or

even: “Para 1: Offer. Para 2: Counteroffer. Para 3: Response to coun-

teroffer.” Keep it simple.

You’ll want to keep it simple because, at least for now, getting bogged

down in the ﬁne details (i.e., the nature and speciﬁcs of the data pre-

sented)—or, worse, trying to memorize those details—is a waste of your

valuable time. Much, and perhaps most, of the presented information may

prove to be irrelevant. You will not be asked questions about it. More, you

should keep in mind that you will have to return to the passages in order to

answer the questions anyway (and you should never try to answer them

from memory), thus doubling the time you spend engaging the information

in the tabs. See the big picture.

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Step Two: Assess the Stem

Now that we have some sense of what the tabs contain, it’s time to carefully

read the question stem to determine exactly what task it is directing us to

do. A few question stems will ask for a single response (e.g., “If Gillian

receives her anticipated yearly bonus, her salary for the month will be . . .”).

Most, however, require multiple responses (e.g., “Does the information in

the articles support each of the following inferences as they appear here?

YES or NO.”). To this end, you will have to read and carefully consider a

number of segments, answering each of them before moving on to the next

question stem. Look for key words in the question stems and answer seg-

ments (e.g., “The manager apparently believes that . . . ,” “The data from

September suggest that . . .”) and let those guide you back to speciﬁc details

and data in the multisource reasoning tabs.

Step Three: What Is the Answer?

The best way to answer a question on the GMAT (or, for that matter, any

standardized test) is to ﬁnd it yourself in the reading, put it in your own

words, and then look for the answer that comes closest in the question’s

answer set. As often as possible—and especially in the case of single-

response question types—be sure to use the process of elimination to

remove unlikely or easily disproven possibilities from the answer set and to

more quickly arrive at a correct response. For common inference question

types, keep in mind that the words “reasonably infer” as they are used on

the GMAT mean something along the lines of “be able to directly prove

through what is written on your screen.” That is, you must be able to point

at the evidence that you use to arrive at your answer. If you are unable to do

so—or if the presented information suggests or supports a broader array of

possible interpretations—take a moment to carefully consider whether such

an answer represents a reasonable or defensible inference. As always, be on

the lookout for extreme language in the answer set. Answers containing

words like must, always, never, no one, and everyone should raise a red ﬂag.

Although such answers are not automatically incorrect, it is rarely the case

that GMAT passages can or will substantiate such absolute positions. Be

extra wary.

Note that once you have answered a question and moved on, you will be

unable to return to it, so be sure you are comfortable with your responses

before pressing ahead.

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Set 13

Now it is time to answer GMAT multisource reasoning practice questions

that have been designed to test your integrated reasoning skills. Good luck!

Use the following articles to answer questions 311 through 314.

Article One: Opinion Article in a Popular Political Journal

The incumbent candidate’s protests aside, it is a matter of plain fact that some

47% of the country’s residents currently pay no taxes—the largest share of

nonpayers on record—and therefore live almost entirely off the largess of

those who are now shouldering a greater part of the burden than ever before.

Our concern is that, as this number continues to grow, a greater portion of

the population will become habituated to life on various forms of public assis-

tance and thus less and less likely to seek avenues of employment that would

lead them to leave the rolls of public welfare.

Article Two: Speech Delivered by the Incumbent Candidate

It’s true that more folks are having trouble making ends meet these days, but

what you should keep in mind is that a smaller and smaller group of people

in the top one percent of the income scale takes home a greater share of

wealth than ever before, while people in the bottom half have seen their

incomes frozen essentially since the mid-1970s. When my opponent and his

supporters argue that almost half of taxpayers pay no taxes, you should

remember that many of them pay no taxes because they simply don’t earn

enough money to do so.

Article Three: Assessment by Nonpartisan Tax Policy Think Tank

Although it is true that a greater portion of the public pays no federal income

taxes, almost everyone pays taxes of some kind. These include payroll taxes

(in the case of those drawing income from regular employment), state and

local taxes, ﬁnes and fees of various kinds, as well as taxes on gasoline, gro-

ceries, clothing, and most other consumer goods. Meanwhile, it is worth

keeping in mind that federal income tax is the relatively progressive instru-

ment in the national revenue-raising mechanism, whereas other forms of tax-

ation (particularly those at the state and local levels) tend to be markedly

regressive.

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311. Consider each of the following statements. Does the information

in the articles support the inference as it appears here?

Yes No The number of taxpayers paying no federal income

taxes is currently the largest on record.

Yes No Making the federal tax code even more progressive

would alleviate much of the repressiveness of the tax

codes at the state and local levels.

Yes No The candidate for local ofﬁce is unaware of the

relatively progressive nature of the federal tax code.

Yes No The fact that the country’s top earners pay a greater

share of the total national tax burden is proof that

the federal tax code is unusually progressive.

312. Consider each of the following statements. Does the information

in the articles support the inference as it appears here?

Yes No The incumbent candidate is unaware that 47% of

taxpayers currently pay no federal income tax.

Yes No The author of the opinion piece is unaware that the

47% ﬁgure he or she employs does not include other

forms of taxation, such as state and local taxes,

payroll taxes, and taxes on consumer goods.

Yes No Members of the top one percent of the income scale

currently pay little or no payroll tax.

Yes No At least some local fees are more regressive than the

federal income tax.

313. It can be reasonably inferred that the Nonpartisan Tax Policy

Think Tank mentions “income from regular employment” to

suggest that

a. some taxpayers are evading legal taxation.

b. there are some forms of income not affected by payroll.

c. the 47% are the only ones who pay payroll taxes.

d. top earners are less likely than others to pay state and local fees.

e. payroll taxes are the most regressive of all those mentioned by

the think tank in its article.

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314. For each of the following statements, select All Accept (AA) if,

based on the information provided, it can be inferred that the

authors of the three articles would likely accept that the statement

is true. If not, select Otherwise (O).

AA O 47% of taxpayers currently pay no federal income tax.

AA O Top earners bear an undue burden under the current

tax code.

AA O The distribution of employment income plays at least

some part in the appearance of unbalance in the

federal tax code.

Use the following e-mail correspondence to answer questions 315

through 317.

E-mail from the Convention Coordinator

Our upcoming comic book convention is running into a few unexpected

snags, the most pressing of which is that we appear to have seriously under-

estimated likely attendance. Our idea to promote the attendance of indus-

try professionals (who do not pay an attendance fee, once they are

credentialed) by allowing them to bring along two guests is now threaten-

ing to cause us to overﬂow our assigned space in the convention center.

There is an additional space available during the three days of the conven-

tion, but acquiring it would threaten our ability to pay our vendors and

force us to rely on greater-than-anticipated volunteer assistance.

E-mail from the Convention Budget Ofﬁcer

The change in guest policy has created a real problem then. We have cur-

rently budgeted $35,000 for three days to cover a wide array of vendor

services, including security, transportation, and on-site medical personnel

in the event of an accident or sudden illness. It has already been very difﬁ-

cult to ﬁnd professionals who are both qualiﬁed and available to take on

many of those skilled responsibilities. Worse, securing the use of expanded

convention center space will cost an additional $7,000 over the long week-

end, cutting into our already tight overall budget. Indeed, any additional

expenditures will require the use of yet more (potentially underqualiﬁed)

volunteers.

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403

E-mail from the Events Coordinator of the Convention Center

We have considered your proposal for expanded use of the convention cen-

ter facilities and (given the expected size of the convention’s attendance) are

prepared to let you lease the additional space at a 40% discount. More, the

center is willing to offer you the use of its own security personnel, though

only for Friday and Saturday (which together are expected to see far more

trafﬁc than Sunday), and only if you agree to also take on the additional

convention space.

315. Consider each of the following statements. Does the information

in the articles support the inference as it appears here?

Yes No Skilled professionals account for the largest

contingent of the convention’s vendor personnel.

Yes No Given the current budget restrictions, even with the

discount offered by the convention center, it is likely

that the convention will have to somewhat expand its

use of volunteer personnel.

Yes No At least some volunteer personnel are unqualiﬁed to

perform certain vendor duties required by the

convention.

Yes No The convention center’s offer of discounted

additional ﬂoor space and security personnel will

alleviate most of the “unexpected snags” mentioned

by the Convention Coordinator in her e-mail.

316. The 40% discount on the expanded ﬂoor space, if accepted, would

account for what percentage of the convention’s total budget for

vendor services?

a. 15

b. 9

c. 8

d. 11

e. 6

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317. For each of the following statements, choose Deﬁnitely True (DT)

if the statement is absolutely true. Choose Possibly True (PT) if

the statement can be true but might not necessarily be true all

the time.

DT PT In the past, the comic book convention had a

different policy toward industry professionals and

their guests.

DT PT If every industry professional brought along only

one guest, the convention center would not overﬂow

its assigned space.

DT PT If the comic book convention eliminates the guest

policy next year, it will not overﬂow its assigned

space.

Use the following e-mail correspondence to answer questions 318

through 322.

E-mail from Buyer

I recently noticed your listing in Antiques Quarterly magazine and am pre-

pared to make an offer on the ceremonial sword you described. As a seri-

ous collector, however, it behooves me to double-check the authenticity of

my acquisitions and to this end I insist on using experts who are known to

me and who have earned my trust over the years. I ﬁnd the current authen-

tication open to some question. Because this is a somewhat costly endeavor,

I ask that you consider my offer of $83,000 for the sword, an amount that

will (in part, at least) offset this additional expense.

E-mail from Seller

Thanks so much for getting in touch. Your offer is some 15% less than my

asking price, and (as such) is much less than I’d hoped to get for the sword.

I assure you that this unusual item’s authenticity has been conﬁrmed by its

country’s leading experts on the era. More, weapons from this particular era

are becoming more and more collectible as the ongoing upheaval in its

country of origin has led many of these treasures to be destroyed. It is my

hope that sometime during the next four years the value of the sword will

more than triple. Still, I am willing to part with this exquisite piece of his-

tory if you are willing to increase your offer by an additional 7%. Please

think it over.

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318. For each of the following statements, choose Deﬁnitely True (DT)

if the statement is absolutely true. Choose Possibly True (PT) if

the statement can be true but might not necessarily be true all

the time.

DT PT The value of the sword will increase during the next

four years.

DT PT The buyer’s expert appraisers are more highly

skilled than any in the employ of the seller.

DT PT The buyer is not entirely certain that the value of

the weapon will triple in the coming four years.

DT PT The cost the buyer will incur to conﬁrm the sword’s

authenticity will exceed the value of 15% of the

seller’s original asking price.

319. According to his message, the seller would be willing to accept an

offer of:

a. $79,500

b. $81,650

c. $88,810

d. $90,100

e. $95,450

320. Consider each of the following statements. Does the information

in the correspondence support the inference as it appears here?

Yes No The buyer has legitimate concerns about the

authenticity of the sword.

Yes No It is unlikely that the experts used by the buyer and

seller overlap.

Yes No There is other evidence that the seller could produce

to convince the buyer to accept the original asking

price.

Yes No The seller does not inhabit the country of origin of

the antique artifact in question.

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321. The seller refers to “the ongoing upheaval” in the sword’s country

of origin as evidence to support which of the following?

a. The sword is the last known example of its kind.

b. The buyer’s authenticators lack the expertise to conﬁrm the

sword’s actual value.

c. The seller expects the value of the sword to continue to

increase.

d. The buyer will be unable to acquire a similar artifact at the

price he is offering.

e. The sword’s country of origin is well known for its political

instability.

322. For each of the following statements, select Yes if true. Otherwise,

select No.

Yes No The seller will not be able to afford to sell the sword

at the buyer’s current offer.

Yes No The buyer is not entirely convinced of the reliability

of the seller’s experts.

Yes No Other artifacts from the era in question are known

to exist.

Yes No At least some of the experts on the item’s

authenticity reside in its country of origin.

Use the following to answer questions 323 through 328.

Internal Communication from Sports League

We appear to have reached a serious impasse with the umpires’ union

regarding their contract demands. Besides salary and cost-of-living

increases amounting to 10% distributed evenly over four years, a reﬁne-

ment of the league’s full-time umpire hiring policy, and improved physical

ﬁtness regimes and assessments, the union is demanding that our league

continue to offer a deﬁned-contribution retirement plan to all currently

active umpires through the year 2021. Frankly, we ﬁnd this latter demand

unacceptable, as it is a beneﬁt enjoyed only by the umpires. We may need

to temporarily vacate certain standing policies related to umpires if we are

to have replacements on the ﬁeld in time for the regular-season opener.

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Internal Communication from Umpires’ Union

We appear to have reached a serious impasse regarding our demands from

the sports league. First, the league is demanding that we permit the hiring

of a greater number of full-time umpires. And, though the league has

agreed in principle to our salary demands (though only to a six percent cost-

of-living increase distributed evenly over four years), the issue of the pen-

sion plan remains, with the league insisting that we accept a more

conventional 401k plan. The cost of the current plan, remarkably, is a mere

$3 million per year and therefore well within the league’s current ability to

fulﬁll. Still, there has been no signiﬁcant agreement on this front. We

believe that the league will move soon to hire replacement umpires in hopes

of having them on the ﬁeld for the regular-season opener in two weeks.

323. For each of the following statements, choose Deﬁnitely True (DT) if

the statement is absolutely true. Choose Possibly True (PT) if the

statement can be true but might not necessarily be true all the time.

DT PT The league’s players do not have a deﬁned-pension

plan.

DT PT The replacement umpires will be in place in time

for the league’s regular-season opener.

DT PT The umpires’ union would be willing to accept the

sport league’s current salary counter-offer.

DT PT Prior to this impasse, the league had in place a

physical ﬁtness assessment program for its umpires.

324. According to the information presented by the umpires’ union,

which of the following can be most reasonably inferred about full-

time umpires?

a. There are currently no full-time umpires in the league, but they

will soon outnumber the regular umpires.

b. Full-time umpires currently represent a majority of the

umpires, but will soon represent almost all umpires.

c. At least some of the current roster of umpires are full-time

umpires.

d. None of the full-time umpires has a deﬁned-contribution

retirement plan.

e. The umpires will be unwilling to accept any new hiring of full-

time umpires.

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325. For each of the following statements, select Inferable (I) if the

statement is reasonably inferable from the information provided.

Otherwise, select Not Inferable (NI).

I NI The sports league has agreed to at least part of the

umpires’ salary demands.

I NI The sports league brings in more than $3 million a year

in revenue.

I NI None of the umpires would be happy with a 401k

pension plan.

326. The sports league’s mention of vacating “certain standing policies

related to umpires” can be more reasonably said to imply that:

a. The sports league is unconcerned with umpire safety.

b. The sports league will be unwilling to reconsider the umpires’

salary demands.

c. The sports league does not expect the umpires to consider any

new contract proposals for at least two weeks.

d. Certain policies related to umpires sometimes take longer than

two weeks to implement.

e. None of the policies in question apply to full-time umpires.

327. Assuming that the information presented by the umpires’ union is

accurate, the author’s use of the word “remarkable” most

reasonably suggests:

a. The issues in question are not entirely ﬁnancial in nature.

b. The umpires’ union is surprised that contract negotiations have

not already been resolved in its favor.

c. The league’s insistence on hiring more full-time umpires will

lead to a season-ending strike.

d. The umpires’ union expects many of its members to quit if their

cost-of-living demands are not met.

e. The impasse appears to be the result of a misunderstanding on

the sports league’s part about the nature of its pension plan.

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328. Assuming an umpire’s annual salary of $150,000, the difference

between the sports league’s cost-of-living increase and the umpires’

union’s demands amounts to how much per year?

a. $2,500

b. $1,500

c. $3,000

d. $3,100

e. $5,100

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Answers—Set 13

311. Yes. The various correspondents are in agreement about this fact,

and therefore it can be reasonably inferred given the available

information.

No. There is not enough information in the passages to support

this prediction of what future actions might be taken by state and

local governments to offset any attempts to add progressivity to

the current tax system.

No. There is not enough information in the passage to support

such a conclusion.

No. There are other explanations as to why this might be the case.

Indeed, the passage suggests that top earners might be paying an

expanded share of total taxes because their total share of the

national income has increased disproportionate to the rest of the

population.

312. No. There is not enough information in the passage to support

such a conclusion.

No. There is not enough information in the passage to support

such a conclusion.

No. There is not enough information in the passage to support

such a conclusion.

Yes. This fact is explicitly stated in the Assessment by the

Nonpartisan Tax Policy Think Tank and can therefore be

supported as a reasonable inference.

313. b. The Nonpartisan Tax Policy Think Tank mentions “income

from regular employment” to suggest a categorical distinction

between types of income that might or might not be exposed to

payroll taxes.

314. AA. All three of the passages appear to accept this information as

fact.

O. Whereas the ﬁrst passage appears to agree with this statement,

it is clear that the second and third either do not or likely do not.

O. Whereas the second and third passages appear to agree with

this statement, it is clear the third passage likely holds a contrary

view.

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315. No. It is clear that skilled professionals constitute a vital part of the

convention’s vendors but there is not enough information

presented in the passages to suggest that they represent the

greatest number of said vendors.

Yes. The e-mail from the Convention Budget Ofﬁcer explicitly

states that any further expenditures (even discounted ones) will

necessitate the use of greater numbers of volunteers.

Yes. The communications make clear that certain transportation,

security, and medical vendors require professional skills or

credentialing.

No. While it is clear that the convention space issue is signiﬁcant,

there is no evidence to suggest that it constitutes the greatest

number of possible problems with the convention’s going forward.

316. c. Forty percent of $7,000 is $2,800, which is 8% of the

convention’s total operating budget of $35,000.

317. DT. The communications make clear the policy toward

credentialed professionals is a new one.

PT. Because the number of invited professionals is not known—

nor is some sense of the actual capacity of the convention center in

question—there is not enough information available to fully

substantiate this statement.

PT. There is not enough information available to fully substantiate

this statement.

318. PT. Without much further detail, the seller’s projection that the

sword’s value will increase is not enough to fully substantiate this

statement.

PT. There is not enough information available to fully substantiate

this statement.

DT. The buyer makes clear that he has questions both about the

item’s value and authenticity.

DT. The seller makes it clear that his asking price will only mostly

offset the cost of the authentication.

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319. c. The seller makes it clear that he will accept an 8% discount on

an item fully priced at $95,450.

320. No. It is unclear whether the buyer’s concerns are legitimate

inasmuch as there is not enough information about the quality of

his expert authenticators to substantiate such a statement.

Yes. Given the disdain on display in the passages, as well as the

demands of the buyer, it is highly unlikely that the buyer and seller

have any expert authenticators in common.

No. There is not enough information available in the passage to

substantiate this statement.

Yes. The seller makes it clear that he does not currently inhabit

the item’s country of origin.

321. c. The seller mentions “the ongoing upheaval” in the sword’s

country of origin as evidence to support his contention that the

item will continue to gain value.

322. No. There is not enough information available in the passage to

substantiate this statement.

Yes. The buyer makes it clear that he does not entirely trust the

expertise of the seller’s authenticators.

Yes. The seller makes it clear that at least some artifacts from the

era in question have escaped destruction.

Yes. The seller explicitly states that at least some of the experts on

the item’s authenticity reside in its country of origin.

323. DT. The sports league’s communication explicitly states that the

umpires are the only league members to have the deﬁned-

contribution plan.

PT. This is stated as a possibility, though whether it will happen

remains an open question.

PT. There is not enough information available in the passage to

fully substantiate this statement.

DT. The sports league’s communication makes clear reference to

“improved physical ﬁtness regimes and assessments.”

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324. c. It is clear from both statements that a number of full-time

umpires are already members of the umpires’ union.

325. I. The umpires’ union makes it clear that the league has, in fact,

acceded to at least some of its demands.

I. The umpires’ union communication makes it clear that the

league brings in more than enough to cover the annual expense of

the umpires’ union’s current pension plan.

NI. There is not enough information available in the passage to

substantiate this statement.

326. d. The statement of the sports league—in conjunction with

information that the regular-season opener is two weeks away—

makes it clear that certain league policies related to umpires

sometimes take longer than that amount of time to implement.

327. a. The fact that the league could easily cover the annual expense

of the umpires’ current pension plan strongly suggests that at least

some of the issues at stake in the current impasse are not ﬁnancial

in nature.

328. b. Assuming this baseline salary, the difference between the cost-

of-living increases in question distributed evenly over the projected

time period is $6,000, or $1,500 per year.

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SECTION 4

GMAT

Quantitative Section

The GMAT quantitative section will measure your ability to reason

mathematically, solve numerical problems, and analyze graphic data. These

are common situations that you will be faced with in the business world.

GMAT quantitative questions fall across three disciplines:

■

Arithmetic

■

Elementary algebra

■

Commonly known concepts of geometry

Most of the concepts tested on the GMAT were probably taught in your

high school math classes.

You will have to answer 37 multiple-choice questions on the GMAT

quantitative section. Of these questions, 15 fall into the data-sufﬁciency

category and 22 into the problem-solving category. Problem-solving ques-

tions will assess your basic math skills, knowledge of elementary-level con-

cepts, and aptitude for reasoning and solving quantitative problems.

Data-sufﬁciency questions will assess your ability to interpret a math prob-

lem, identify relevant information, and evaluate whether there is enough

information to solve a problem. Each data-sufﬁciency question on the

GMAT is accompanied by information and two statements, labeled (1) and

(2). You must decide whether the statements offer sufﬁcient information for

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you to answer the question. Then, you’ll choose from the following answer

choices:

■

Statement (1) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (2) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

■

Statement (2) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (1) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

■

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

■

EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

■

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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Arithmetic

Out of the three math topics, arithmetic usually accounts for one-

half of the questions asked in the GMAT quantitative section. This chap-

ter reviews basic arithmetic concepts and formulas, involving:

■

number terminology

■

order of operations

■

absolute value

■

factoring

■

fractions

■

decimals

■

mean, median, mode, and range

■

percents

Number Terminology and Properties

Integers are the numbers that you see on a number line. Positive integers are

integers that are larger than zero. Negative integers are smaller than zero.

The result in an addition problem is called the sum. The result in a sub-

traction problem is called the difference.

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Adding integers often involves the use of certain properties. The associa-

tive property of addition states that when you add a series of numbers, you can

regroup the numbers any way you’d like:

1 + (9 + 7) = (1 + 9) + 7 = (1 + 7) + 9

The commutative property of addition states that when you add numbers,

order doesn’t matter:

8 + 2 = 2 + 8

The result in a multiplication problem is called a product. The result in a

division problem is called a quotient.

The product of two integers with the same sign (+ and + or – and –) is

always positive. The product of two integers with different signs (+ and –)

is always negative. For example:

3 ¥ 4 = 12

–3 ¥ –4 = 12

–3 ¥ 4 = –12

3 ¥ –4 = –12

Likewise, the quotient of two integers with the same sign (+ and + or – and –)

is always positive. The quotient of two integers with the different signs

(+ and –) is always negative. For example:

4 ÷ 2 = 2

–4 ÷ –2 = 2

–4 ÷ 2 = –2

4 ÷ –2 = –2

When multiplying integers, you will often use the same properties you used

with the addition of integers. The associative property of multiplication states

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that when you are multiplying a series of numbers, you can regroup the

numbers any way you’d like:

2 ¥ (5 ¥ 9) = (2 ¥ 5) ¥ 9 = (2 ¥ 9) ¥ 5

The commutative property of multiplication states that when you multiply inte-

gers, order doesn’t matter:

6 ¥ 5 = 5 ¥ 6

The Order of Operations

To remember the order of operations with numerical expressions, you can

use a mnemonic, the word PEMDAS.

P Do operations inside parentheses.

E Evaluate terms with exponents.

M/D Do multiplication and division in order from left to right.

A/S Add and subtract terms in order from left to right.

Set 14

Use the order of operations to answer the following questions.

329. 5 + 10 ÷ 5 – 7 =

330. 2 – 6 ¥ 4 ÷ 2 =

331. 9 ÷ 3 + 3 ¥ 8 =

Absolute Value

If you look at a point on a number line, measure its distance from zero, and

consider that value as positive, you have just found the number’s absolute

value. The absolute value of 3, written as |3|, is 3. The absolute value of

–3, written as |–3|, is also 3.

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When using the order of operations, the absolute value symbol is treated

at the same level as parentheses. Try this out:

5 ¥ |–13 + 3|

First, evaluate the expression inside the absolute value symbol:

5 ¥ |–10|

Now, evaluate the absolute value:

|–10| = 10, so 5 ¥ 10 = 50

Set 15

Find the absolute values.

332. |156| =

333. |–97| =

334. –|13| =

335. 74 + |–23| =

336. 35 – |–12| =

337. 100 ÷ 5 + |–5 ¥ 3| =

338. 5 ¥ –|9| =

339. 99 ÷ |–33| =

Factoring Numbers

A number is a factor of a second number if it can be divided into the sec-

ond number without leaving a remainder. Let’s look at the factors of 12: 1,

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2, 3, 4, 6, and 12. The number 12 can be divided by each of these numbers

without leaving a remainder.

12 ÷ 1 = 12

12 ÷ 2 = 6

12 ÷ 3 = 4

12 ÷ 4 = 3

12 ÷ 6 = 2

12 ÷ 12 = 1

If you start with 1 and the number itself when you write down factor pairs,

you won’t forget any of them. For 12, the factor pairs are as follows:

1 and 12

2 and 6

3 and 4

If a number is a factor of a given number, the given number is divisible by

the factor. A few simple rules will help you quickly determine divisibility

and factor problems.

■

An integer is divisible by 2 if its ones digit is divisible by 2.

■

An integer is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible

by 3.

■

An integer is divisible by 4 if its last two digits form a number

divisible by 4.

■

An integer is divisible by 5 if its ones digit is either 0 or 5.

■

An integer is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.

■

An integer is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible

by 9.

■

An integer is divisible by 10 if its ones digit is 0.

When an integer greater than 1 has exactly two factors (1 and itself), it is a

prime number. Examples of prime numbers include 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19,

23, and 29. Note that the opposite (negative version) of these numbers are

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also prime. For example, the factors of –23 are 1, –23, –1, and 23. Thus, –23

is prime because it has exactly two positive factors: 1 and 23.

When an integer greater than 1 has more than two factors, it is called a

composite number.

The numbers 0 and 1 are neither prime nor composite. Zero has an inﬁ-

nite number of factors. The number 1, on the other hand, has one factor—

itself. When a number is expressed as a product of factors that are all prime,

that expression is called the prime factorization of the number.

The greatest of all the factors common to two or more numbers is called

the greatest common factor (GCF).

A multiple of a number is the product of that number and any whole

number. The least of the common multiples of two or more numbers,

excluding 0, is called the least common multiple (LCM).

Set 16

Answer the following questions.

340. What is the prime factorization of 60?

341. Find the greatest common factor of 20 and 30.

342. Find the greatest common factor of 63 and 81.

343. Find the least common multiple of 63 and 81.

Fractions

A proper fraction has a numerator that is smaller than its denominator:

Improper fractions have numerators that are bigger than their denominators:

A mixed number is a number that is represented as a whole number and a

proper fraction. The following are all mixed numbers:

, 8

, –2

4 2 6

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To change a mixed number into an improper fraction, follow these steps:

1. Multiply the denominator of the fraction by the whole number.

2. Add that sum to the numerator.

3. Put that amount over the original denominator.

A fraction can be considered negative if either its numerator or denomina-

tor is negative. When a fraction receives any type of sign, particularly the

negative sign, it can appear in three different places—in the numerator,

denominator, or right before the fraction.

To add or subtract fractions, the denominators have to match. To add

fractions with like denominators, just add the numerators. To subtract frac-

tions with like denominators, just subtract the numerators.

To ﬁ n d t h e s u m o r d i f f e r e n c e o f t w o f r a c t i o n s w i t h u n l i k e d e n o m i n a t o r s ,

rename the fractions with a common denominator. Then, add or subtract

and simplify your answer.

To multiply fractions, multiply the numerators, then multiply the

denominators, and ﬁnally simplify if possible and necessary.

To divide one fraction by another, you need to ﬂip the second fraction

and then multiply the fractions. This ﬂip of the second fraction is called the

multiplicative inverse of a number or the reciprocal.

Sometimes, you may need to ﬁnd the greatest fractions or put fractions

in order from least to greatest or from greatest to least. To do this, you

should ﬁrst give all the fractions a common denominator.

Set 17

Answer the following questions.

344. Convert

to a mixed number.

345. Convert 6

to an improper fraction.

–

3 15

= 346.

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Decimals

The decimal system is a way to name numbers based on the powers of 10.

The numbers to the right of the decimal point are fractional equivalents

with denominators that are powers of ten. For example,

0.1 =

0.2 =

0.3 =

Decimal numbers are easy to compare and order, when you remember that

the place value has meaning. In mathematics, 2.4 is the same number as

2.400 because both numbers represent two and four tenths. A whole num-

ber is understood to have a decimal point to the right of the number. For

example, 12 = 12. = 12.0 = 12.000. Each expression represents twelve with

no remainder. To compare decimals, it is best to change each decimal into

an equivalent decimal with the same number of decimal places.

To add or subtract decimal values, line up the decimal points and add or

subtract.

When you are multiplying decimals, ﬁrst you multiply in the usual fash-

ion, and then count over the proper number of places. This is done by

counting how many places are to the right of the decimal point in each

number you are multiplying.

When you are dividing decimals, you move the decimal point of the div-

idend and divisor the same number of places.

Set 18

Answer the following questions.

347. Order from lower to higher: 0.03, 0.008.

348. 6.4 – 1.3 =

349. 3.1 ¥ 4 =

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Mean, Median, Mode, and Range

When you are dealing with sets of numbers, there are certain measures used

to describe the set as a whole. These are called measures of central ten-

dency, and they include mean, median, mode, and range.

Mean is another way of saying average. To ﬁnd the average, you total up

all the values and then divide by the number of values.

When you are considering a list of values in order (from smallest to

largest), the median is the middle value. If there are two middle values, you

just take their average.

In a list of values, the mode is the number that occurs most often. If two

numbers occur most often, you have two modes. This is called bimodal.

The range indicates how close together the given values are to one

another in a set of data. To ﬁnd the range, determine the difference between

the largest and the smallest values in the set of data. Subtract the smallest

value from the largest value in the set.

Set 19

350. Find the mean of the following set of data: {32, 34, 34, 35, 37, 38,

34, 42}

351. What is the mode of {71, 68, 71, 77, 65, 68, 72}?

352. The ages at the day camp were as follows: 9, 12, 9, 10, 9, 13, 11, 8,

17, 10. What is the median age?

353. What is the range of the temperatures listed: 43°, 47°, 43°, 52°,

42°, 78°, 84°, 80°?

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Probability

Probability is the mathematics of chance. It is a way of calculating how

likely it is that something will happen. It is expressed as the following ratio:

P(event) =

__________________________

number of favorable outcomes

number of total outcomes

The term favorable outcomes refers to the events you want to occur. Total

outcomes refers to all the possible events that could occur.

A probability of zero (0) means that the event cannot occur. A probabil-

ity of 50% is said to be random or chance. A probability of 100% or 1.00

means it is certain to occur. Probabilities can be written in different ways:

As a ratio: 1 out of 2 (1:2)

As a fraction:

As a percent: 50%

As a decimal: 0.5

Percents

When you see a number followed by the percent symbol, think of the per-

cent as a ratio comparing that number to 100. Percents can be expressed in

two different ways:

1. as a fraction (just put the number over 100): 5% =

___

100

2. as a decimal (move the decimal point two places to the left):

5% = 0.05

Recall that the word of tells you to multiply. When you take the percent of

a number, you should multiply.

When you take the percent of a percent, all you need to do is multiply:

40% of 20% of 600 =

0.40 of 0.20 of 600 =

0.40 ¥ 0.20 ¥ 600 = 48

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Set 20

Now it is time to answer GMAT problem-solving practice questions that

have been designed to test your arithmetic skills. Remember:

■

Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices

given.

■

All numbers used are real numbers.

■

A ﬁgure accompanying a problem-solving question is intended

to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures

are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated

in a speciﬁc problem that the ﬁgure is not drawn to scale.

Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All ﬁgures lie in a

plane unless otherwise indicated.

354. List the following fractions in order from least to greatest.

2 7 6 4

8 5

3 2 6 7

2 3 4 5 6 7 8

5 4

6 7

8 2

2 7

4 5 3

355. When processing iron ore into stainless steel, high-purity oxygen

is blown through, removing 1.5% of all impurities. Then only

30% of the remaining metal alloy can be used to create rust-free

stainless steel. If 5 kg of stainless steel is desired, how much

starting iron ore is needed?

a. 19.61 kg

b. 16.9 kg

c. 6.73 kg

d. 7.64 kg

e. 16.5 kg

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356. The House of Representatives consists of 435 members divided

into two parties. How many Daemocrats are seated in the House if

their seats are equal to 20 more than two-thirds of the Republican

Party seats?

a. 249

b. 186

c. 162

d. 273

e. 229

357. In 2009,TechNet had an average net proﬁt of $7.50 per item sold.

In 2012, the proﬁt decreased to $6.60 per item sold. What is the

percent of proﬁt decrease?

a. 12%

b. 11.3%

c. 8.8%

d. 9%

e. 10%

358. A nutritionist creates the following diet. Four days a week the

nutritionist eats three meals a day, starting with a 450-calorie

breakfast, and adding 100 calories for each subsequent meal. The

other three days the nutritionist eats ﬁve smaller meals, each

consisting of 300 calories. At the end of four weeks what is the

average caloric intake per meal?

a. 386

b. 411

c. 394

d. 425

e. 488

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359.

A class is asked to record every book they read during their

summer break. Find the median of the summer reading data set.

Jennifer 2

Roman 14

Javier 21

Sophia 1

Sergio 16

Valerie 5

Lizzette 7

Danny 10

Freddy 9

Michelle 22

Julia 2

Victor 3

a. 8

b. 9

c. 9.3

d. 9.5

e. 10

Set 21

Now it is time to answer GMAT data sufﬁciency practice questions that

have been designed to test your arithmetic skills. Remember:

■

All numbers used are real numbers.

■

A ﬁgure accompanying a data sufﬁciency question will conform

to the information given in the question but will not

429

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necessarily conform to the additional information given in

statements (I) and (II).

■

In data sufﬁciency problems that ask for the value of a quantity,

the data given in the statement is sufﬁcient only when it is

possible to determine exactly one numerical value for the

quantity.

360. The approximate average temperature for the second week in

March was 75°.

II. The sum of the seven-day forecast was 525.

II. The average temperature from Sunday to Tuesday was 67°.

The rest of the week was 81°.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

361. Is x divisible by ﬁve?

II. The sum of the digits is eight.

II. The ﬁrst digit of x is 3.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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362. Which company had a higher growth in net proﬁt?

II. Company P’s net proﬁts rose by 2.5%.

II. Company Q’s net proﬁts rose by 3.7%.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

363. How many female attendees at a 240-person concert bought a

band T-shirt before the concert?

II. 40% of the attendees were male.

II. 127 T-shirts were sold at the gift shop before the show

started.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

364. A jar is ﬁlled with blue and green marbles. What is the probability

that two green marbles are drawn in a row?

II. There are 36 blue marbles in the jar.

II. The probability of choosing a green marble on the ﬁrst try

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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365. How old is Roy if he is twice as old as his friend Jane, Jane is four

times as old as Timmy, and Timmy is two year older than Ben?

II. The sum of all their ages is 152.

II. Ben is 9.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

366. Annie ﬁnished her race before Alexi.

II. Annie ran the ﬁrst 4 minutes at a 4 mph pace, and ﬁnished

the last 8 miles of the race in 60 minutes.

II. Alexi’s top speed was 5.5 mph.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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Answers

Set 14

329. 0. Using the order of operations, ﬁrst you divide. 5 + 10 ÷ 5 – 7

becomes 5 + 2 – 7. Next, you add/subtract in order from left to

right: 5 + 2 – 7 becomes 7 – 7 = 0.

330. –10. Using the order of operations, ﬁrst you multiply: 2 – 6 ¥ 4 ÷ 2

becomes 2 – 24 ÷ 2. Next, you divide: 2 – 24 ÷ 2 becomes 2 – 12,

which equals –10.

331. 27. Using the order of operations, ﬁrst you divide/multiply in

order from left to right: 9 ÷ 3 + 3 ¥ 8 becomes 3 + 3 ¥ 8. Next, you

multiply: 3 + 3 ¥ 8 becomes 3 + 24, which equals 27.

Set 15

332. |156| = 156

333. |–97| = 97

334. –|13| = –13

335. 74 + |–23| = 97

336. 35 – |–12| = 23

337. The absolute value symbol serves as a grouping symbol, and

grouping symbols are evaluated ﬁrst: |–5 ¥ 3| = 15. Now, divide 5

into 100 to get 20. Finally, add 20 + 15 = 35.

338. –9 is equal to the opposite of the absolute value of 9, or –9: 5 ¥ –9

= –45.

339. –33 is equal to 33. What times 33 equals 99? Your answer should

be 3.

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Set 16

340. 2 ¥ 2 ¥ 3 ¥ 5

341. The prime factorization of 20 is 2 ¥ 2 ¥ 5. The prime factorization

of 30 = 2 ¥ 3 ¥ 5. Because 2 and 5 are prime factors of both 20 and

30, the greatest common factor is 2 times 5, which is 10.

342. Factors of 63: 1, 3, 7, 9, 21, 63

Factors of 81: 1, 3, 9, 27, 81

All factors have been listed. The largest one in common between

63 and 81 is 9.

343. Multiples of 63: 63, 126, 189, 252, 315, 378, 441, 504, 567

Multiples of 81: 81, 162, 243, 324, 405, 486, 567

Multiples are listed until one is found in common. The least

common multiple of 63 and 81 is 567.

Set 17

To convert an improper fraction to a mixed number, divide the

numerator by the denominator: 19 ÷ 5 = 3 with 4 left over. You

express the remainder as a fraction. The improper fraction has a

denominator of 5, so the remainder has a denominator of 5:

19 ÷ 5 = 3

344.

. To convert a mixed number to an improper fraction, you begin

by multiplying the whole number, 6, by the denominator of the

fraction, 8: 6 ¥ 8 = 48. Next, add to that product the numerator of

the fraction: 48 + 5 = 53. Put this number over the original

denominator, 8, to get the improper fraction

345.

. First convert both fractions to the LCD (

5 3

). Subtract the

numerators and write the result over the denominator. Don’t

forget to reduce! (

–

15 15 15

, which reduces to

346.

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Set 18

347. The correct answer is 0.008, 0.03. Since 0.008 has three decimal

digits, tack one zero onto the end of 0.03, making it 0.030. To

compare 0.008 to 0.030, just compare 30 to 8. 30 is larger than 8,

so 0.03 is larger than 0.008.

348. 5.1. Line up the numbers so that their decimal points are aligned.

Move the decimal point directly down into the answer and

subtract: 6.4 – 1.3 = 5.1.

349. 12.4. Multiply 31 by 4: 31 ¥ 4 = 124. The answer requires 1

decimal digit because there is a total of 1 decimal digit in 3.1 and 4.

Move the decimal point one place to the left (12.4).

Set 19

350. To ﬁnd the mean, add all the data values, and divide by the number

of items, which is eight: 32 + 34 + 34 + 35 + 37 + 38 + 34 + 42 =

286; 286 divided by 8 is 35.75.

351. There are two modes for this data set. Both 71 and 68 appear in

the set twice.

352. First, arrange the data into increasing order: 8, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11,

12, 13, 17. There is an even number of data values, so the median

is the mean of the two middle values. The middle values are

10 + 10 = 20, and 20 divided by 2 is 10.

353. The range is the difference between the highest and lowest values

in the set of data. The highest temperature is 84° and the lowest

temperature is 42°: 84° – 42° = 42°.

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Set 20

354. a. All fractions can be converted to decimals to verify whether

they are in the correct order form least to greatest.

= 0.33

= 0.375

= 0.4

= 0.5

= 0.67

= 0.71

= 0.75

Choice b is incorrect as it lists the fractions from least to greatest

according to denominator. Choice c is incorrect as it lists the

fractions from least to greatest according to numerator. Choice d is

incorrect as it mixes up the last two fractions,

and

7 4

355. b. Starting with the 5 kg product, you can work backward to ﬁnd

the metal alloy (m) middle product and the original total of iron

ore (t).

5 kg = 0.30(m)

m = 16.67 kg

t – 0.015t = m

t – 0.015t = 16.67 kg

0.985t = 16.67 kg

t = 16.9 kg

The rest of the answers are incorrect because they do not set the

equations up correctly (0.015t = 16.66) or they use the wrong

percentile decimal (0.15 instead of 0.015)

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356. b. To solve this problem the following equations should be set up

using D for Democrat, R for Republican.

D + R = 435

R + 20 = D

Then substitute the second equation into the ﬁrst equation.

(

R + 20) + R = 435

R = 415

R = 249

Then substitute R into the ﬁrst equation to solve for D.

D + (249) = 435

D = 186

Choice a is the number of the Republican seats, not Democrat

seats. Choices c and d are the respective Democrat and Republican

seats if you set your equation up incorrectly and subtracted 20, (

R – 20), instead of adding.

357. a. To properly solve this problem you would need to set up an

equation, using p for percent proﬁt.

7.50 – 7.50(p) = 6.60

–7.5( p) = .9

p = –.12 or –12%

This represents a 12% proﬁt decrease. Choice b is the proﬁt

calculated using this incorrect equation: 7.5 ÷ 6.5 = p.

Choice c is the proﬁt calculated using this incorrect equation:

6.5 ÷ 7.5 = p.

Choice d is incorrect because you just subtracted 7.5 – 6.6 = 0.9.

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358. b. To ﬁnd the average caloric intake per meal during these four

weeks, you have to ﬁnd the average during a one week cycle.

(450 + 550 + 650) = 1,650 ¥ 4 days = 6,600 (3 meals a day for

4 days = 12 total meals per week)

(300 + 300 + 300 + 300 + 300) = 1,500 ¥ 3 days = 4,500 (5 meals

a day for 3 days = 15 total meals per week)

6,600 + 4,500 = 11,100 total calories at the end of a week

______

11,100

= 411 calories per meal

Choice c is incorrect because is it only the average of the two

different meal plans.

(450 + 550 + 650 + 5(300)) ÷ 8 meals = 394

Choice d is incorrect because it is the average of each day averaged

together:

(550 + 300) ÷ 2 = 425

359. a. The median is the number in the middle of the series when the

numbers are arranged in numerical order.

1, 2, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 10, 14, 16, 21, 22

Since there are an even amount of numbers, to ﬁnd the median

you must ﬁnd the mean of the middle two numbers. The mean of

7 and 9 is 8. Choice b is incorrect because it means you did not

include the second 2 in your series. Choice c is incorrect as it is the

mean of the series. Choice d is incorrect as it is the mean of the

series without including the double 2. Choice e is incorrect

because you forgot to list 2 twice when ordering the numbers from

least to greatest.

Set 21

360. d. Either statement will produce an average temperature of 75°.

For the ﬁrst statement, if the sum of all seven days is 525, you can

divide by 7 (total days in the week) to ﬁnd the average of 75°. For

statement (2), you can sum the ﬁrst three days (Sunday–Tuesday)

and get 201 (67 ¥ 3 = 201) , and then sum the last four days

(Wednesday–Saturday) and get 324 (81 × 4 = 324), add those

together, and divide by 7 to ﬁnd an average of 75° (201 + 324 =

525 ÷ 7 = 75).

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361. c. Both statements are needed together because if x is divisible by

5, the second digit must be either a zero or a 5. If the sum of the

digits is 8, the only combination that would make x divisible by 5

would be 3 and 5 or 8 and 0. The second statement conﬁrms that

the ﬁrst digit is 3, meaning the second digit has to be 5, so they can

sum to 8.

362. e. It does not matter how much the proﬁts rose if we do not know

the actual proﬁts. 2.5% of 1,000 would be larger than 3.7% of 100.

363. e. Neither statement is sufﬁcient because they do not state how

many females bought T-shirts. The ﬁrst statement allows you to

determine how many females are present at the concert. The

second statement tells you how many total T-shirts were bought,

but it cannot be assumed that equal ratios of males and females

bought shirts.

364. c. In order to determine the probability, you would need to know

both the total number of marbles and the ratio of blue to green

marbles. Using the information from both statements you can

determine both the total number of marbles and the speciﬁc

number of each. If there are 36 blue marbles, and a

chance of

picking a green marble, that means there are 9 green marbles.

(

green marbles

____________

blue marbles

)

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365. d. You can use either statement independently to determine the

age of Roy. To use either statement you would have to set up

algebraic expressions for each variable.

R = 2J

J = 4T

T = B + 2

Given statement (I), you know the sum of all ages,

R + J + T + B = 152

but in order to solve you would have to put the expression in terms

of one variable, say, B:

2(4(B + 2)) + 4(B + 2) + (B + 2) + B = 152, then solve for B:

8B + 16 + 4B + 8 + B + 2 + B = 152

14B + 26 = 152

14B = 126

B = 9

Then, using that, or the information given in statement (II), plug B

back into the original expressions to solve for T, J, and R.

T = (9) + 2

T = 11

J = 4(11)

J = 44

R = 2(44)

R = 88

Roy is 88 years old.

366. c. To determine who won the race, both statements are needed for

comparison. The ﬁrst statement allows you to calculate Annie’s

average speed. If she ran the ﬁrst 4 miles at 4 miles per hour, the

last 8 miles in 60 minutes, she ran a total of 12 miles in 120

minutes (or 2 hours).

speed = distance ÷ time

Annie’s speed = 12 miles ÷ 2 hours = 6 miles per hour.

The second statement tells you that Alexi’s fastest pace was 5.5

miles per hour, meaning that could be his highest average speed, if

he ran the entire race at his top speed. With both statements we

can compare the two speeds and conﬁrm that Annie did ﬁnish the

race faster if she ran at a higher average speed.

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Algebra

Algebra questions account for about 25% of the GMAT quantita-

tive section. This chapter reviews key algebra concepts, including:

■

sequences

■

exponents

■

roots

■

expressions

■

equations

■

word problems

■

inequalities

Sequences

Arithmetic sequences grow by adding or subtracting a constant number to

each term. For example, look at the following series:

9, 13, 17, 21, . . .

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Notice that each term is four more than the term that comes before it. This

is an example of an arithmetic series with a common difference of 4. What

will the next term be?

To solve, add 4 to 21:

21 + 4 = 25

Thus, the next term will be 25.

Geometric sequences grow by multiplying each term by a constant num-

ber to get the next term. For example, look at the following series:

5, 25, 125, 625, . . .

Note that each term is ﬁve times the prior term. This is an example of a

geometric series with a common ratio of 5. What will the next term be?

Multiply 625 by 5:

625 ¥ 5 = 3,125

Thus, the next term will be 3,125.

Set 22

Find the missing numbers in the following sequences.

367. What is the next number in the following sequence?

3, 16, 6, 12, 12, 8, __

368. What number should come next in the following sequence?

0.2,

, 0.4,

, 0.8,

5 5 5

Exponents

An exponent tells you how many times the base is used as a factor. In the

expression 4

, the three is the exponent and the four is the base. The expres-

sion 4

shows that four is a factor three times. That means four times four

times four.

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When you are multiplying two identical bases, you add the exponents

instead of multiplying them. For example:

· x

(x · x)(x · x · x) =

Set 23

Solve the following problems.

369. 5

370. 2

371. a

Roots

Yo u k n o w y o u n e e d t o t a k e t h e s q u a r e r o o t o f a n u m b e r w h e n y o u s e e a r a d -

ical sign, which looks like this .

To ﬁnd the square root of a number, ask yourself: What number when

squared will equal the number under the radical sign?

For example, you know that 2

= 4, so

= 2. Square roots are relatively

easy to calculate for perfect squares, such as:

= 2

= 3

= 4

= 5

= 6

Other times, you can approximate the value of a radical by ﬁnding out

which two perfect squares it falls between. For example, since

= 5 and

= 6,

must be a number between 5 and 6.

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You know that 3 ¥ 3 = 9, so

= 3. But, –3 ¥ –3 = 9 as well.

has two

solutions: 3 and –3.

However, for the most part, you will be solving for the principle square

root, which will be the positive root.

If a problem is looking for both solutions, the problem will be written

like this: ±

You can multiply and divide the square roots of different numbers, but

you cannot add or subtract them.

a + b ≠ a + b

a − b ≠ a − b

a × b ≠ a × b

a a

If you are dealing with the root of the same number, you can combine the

like terms:

a + a = 2 a

4 a

= 2 a

2 a

Set 24

Solve the following problems.

372.

12 × 12 =

373.

374.

9+ 1 6=

375.

91+ 6=

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Algebraic Expressions

In algebra, letters are often used to represent numbers. These letters are

called variables. The numbers in front of the variable or variables are called

coefﬁcients. Remember:

■

A coefﬁcient is a factor in an algebraic term, as are the variable

or variables in the term.

■

Like terms can have different coefﬁcients, but the

conﬁguration of the variables must be the same for the terms

to be alike. For example, 3x and –4x are like terms, but they

are different from 7ax.

Mathematical expressions, like numbers, can be named in different ways.

For example, here are three ways to write the same expression:

x + –3

x + (–3)

x – 3

For purposes of combining like terms, a variable by itself is understood to

mean one of that term:

n = +1n

A term without a sign in front of it is considered to be positive.

To simplify expressions, clear any parentheses, combine like terms by

adding coefﬁcients, and then combine the constants.

When you are asked to evaluate an algebraic expression, you substitute

a number in place of a variable (letter) and then simplify the expression.

Set 25

Simplify the following expressions by combining like terms.

376. 5a + 2a + 7a

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377. 7a + 6b + 3a

378. 4x + 2y – x + 3y

379. 27 – 3m + 12 – 5m

380. 7h + 6 + 2w – 3 + h

Simplify the following expressions by combining like terms.

381. Evaluate the expression 2b + a when a = 2 and b = 4.

382. Evaluate the expression a

+ 2b + c when a = 2, b = 3, and b = 7.

Equations

An equation is a mathematical tool that helps people solve many real-life

problems. The word equation means two equal expressions. These expressions

could be numbers, such as 6 = 5 + 1, or variables, such as D = rt.

What does it mean to solve an equation? When you ﬁnd the value of the

variable, you have solved the equation. For example, you have solved the

equation 2x = 10 once you know the value of x.

Here’s the basic rule for solving equations: When you do something to one

side of an equation, you must do the same thing to the other side of the equa-

tion. Yo u ’ l l k n o w y o u h a v e s o lv e d a n e q u a ti o n o n c e th e v a r i a b l e i s a l o n e ( i so -

lated) on one side of the equation and the variable is positive. In the example

–x = 5, 5 is not the answer because the x variable is negative. Remember that

–x is the same as –1x. To make the variable positive, divide both sides by –1.

Therefore, x = –5.

Solving Equations Using Addition or Subtraction

You can solve equations using addition and subtraction by getting the vari-

able on one side by itself. Think about how you would solve this equation:

x + 4 = 10

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Your goal is to get the variable x on one side by itself. To get x by itself, you

need to get rid of the 4. If you subtract 4 from 4, the result is 0, and you

have eliminated the 4 to get x on one side by itself. However, if you subtract

4 from the left side of the equation, then you must do the same to the right

side of the equation.

Subtract 4 from both sides of the equation: x + 4 – 4 = 10 – 4

Simplify both sides of the equation: x + 0 = 6

Add 0 to x: x = 6

When you add zero to a number, the number does not change, so

x + 0 = x. When you do this, you are using the additive property of zero,

which states that a number added to zero equals that number. For example,

5 + 0 = 5.

Set 26

Simplify both sides of the following equations.

383. x – 5 = 9

384. a + 6 = 7

385. y – 11 = 8

386. –r + 9 = 13

387. d – 7 = 8

388. x – 5 = –6

Solving Equations Using Multiplication or Division

In the equation x + 10 = 2, to get rid of the 10, you would subtract 10. In

the equation x – 5 = 6, to get rid of the 5, you would add 5. So, in the equa-

tion 5x = 10, how would you get rid of the 5?

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The opposite of multiplying by 5 is dividing by 5; therefore, you would

solve this equation using division:

5x = 10

x = 2

When you divide a number by itself, you always get 1, so 5x divided by 5

equals 1x. Remember, 1x is the same as x.

In the equation

= 2, how would you get rid of the 5 so the x will be on

one side by itself? If you multiply

times 5, you will get 1x, which is the

same as x.

Set 27

Solve the following equations.

389.

= 13

390.

= 3

Polynomials

A polynomial is a number, a variable, or a combination of a number and a

variable. A polynomial can be one or more terms. Monomials, binomials,

and trinomials are all polynomials.

A polynomial with one term is called a monomial. To multiply a polyno-

mial with one term (monomial) by a polynomial with more than one term,

use the distributive property. You multiply the term outside the parenthe-

ses by every term inside the parentheses. For example:

2(a + b – 3) = 2a + 2b – 6

3x(x

+ 2x) = 3x

+ 6x

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A binomial is a polynomial with two terms. To multiply a binomial by a

binomial, you will use a method called FOIL. This process is called FOIL

because you work the problem in this order:

First

Outer

Inner

Last

Example: (x + 2)(x + 3)

Multiply the ﬁrst terms in each binomial: ([x] + 2)([x] + 3) = x

Multiply the two outer terms in each binomial: ([x] + 2)(x + [3]) =

+ 3x

Multiply the two inner terms in each binomial: (x + [2])([x] + 3) =

+ 3x + 2x

Multiply the two last terms in each binomial: (x + [2])(x + [3]) =

+ 3x + 2x + 6

Simplify: = x

+ 5x + 6

A bicycle has two wheels; a tricycle has three wheels. Likewise, a bino-

mial has two terms, and a trinomial has three terms. Here’s how you would

multiply a binomial by a trinomial.

(x + 2)( x

+ 2x + 1)

To work this problem, you need to multiply each term in the ﬁrst polyno-

mial with each term in the second polynomial. You are doing exactly that

when you use FOIL.

Multiply x by each term in the second polynomial: x(x

+ 2x + 1) =

+ 2x

+ x

Multiply 2 by each term in the second polynomial: 2(x

+ 2x + 1) =

+ 4x + 2

Simplify: x

+ 2x

+ x + 2x

+ 4x + 2 = x

+ 4x

+ 5x + 2

Formulas

Formulas are special equations that show relationships between quantities.

For example, you have probably worked with the formula A = lw. This for-

mula tells you to multiply the length times the width of a rectangle to ﬁnd

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its area. The formula D = rt tells you to multiply the rate by the time to ﬁnd

the distance traveled.

When you substitute the information you know into a formula, you can

use that to ﬁnd the information you don’t know. For example, if you travel

55 miles per hour (mph) for 3 hours, how far would you travel? Substitute

what you know into the equation. Then, solve the equation for the variable

you don’t know.

Substitute what you know into the formula: D = 55 ¥ 3

Multiply: D = 165

You would travel 165 miles.

This technique works for any formula, even if the formula is very complex.

Example: Find the interest on a savings account with a balance of

$2,400, when the interest rate is 3% for 3 years. Use the for-

mula I = prt.

I = interest earned

p = amount of money invested

r = interest rate

t = time invested

I = prt

Substitute what you know into the formula:

I = $2,400 ¥ 3% ¥ 3 years

I = 2,400 ¥ .03 ¥ 3

Simplify the equation:

I = $216

Set 28

Answer the following problems by substituting the information that you

know into the formulas.

391. How long would you need to invest $3,000 with an interest rate of

3.5% to earn $630? (Use I = prt)

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392. How long would it take to travel 300 miles traveling at a speed of

60 mph? (Use D = rt)

Setting Up Equations for Real-World Problems

Equations can be used to solve real-life problems. In an equation, the vari-

able often represents the answer to a real-life problem. For example, sup-

pose you know that you can earn twice as much money this summer as you

did last summer. You made $1,200 last summer. How much will you earn

this summer? You can use the variable x to represent the answer to the

problem. You want to know how much you can earn this summer.

Let x = how much you can earn this summer.

$1,200 = amount earned last summer

x = 2 ¥ $1,200

x = $2,400

Set 29

Answer the following problems.

393. There are twice as many women in your yoga class as there are

men. If there are 18 women in the class, how many men are in the

class?

394. You are going to be working for Success Corporation. You got a

signing bonus of $2,500, and you will be paid $17.50 an hour. If

you are paid monthly, how much will your ﬁrst paycheck be? Be

sure to include your signing bonus, and assume that you have a 40-

hour work week and that there are 4 weeks in this month.

395. Grace sells real estate and receives a 6% commission for every

residential property that she sells. How much commission would

she receive if she sold a home for $175,000?

396. There are 40 questions on a test. How many questions must you

answer correctly to score 90%?

501 GMAT

Questions

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Inequalities

An inequality is two numbers or expressions that are connected with an

inequality symbol. The inequality symbols are

< (less than)

> (greater than)

(less than or equal to)

≥ (greater than or equal to)

/ (not equal to)

Here are some examples of inequalities:

2 < 5 (two is less than ﬁve)

9 > 3 (nine is greater than three)

4 <

4 (four is less than or equal to four)

2x + 5

/ 11 (2x added to ﬁve is not equal to eleven)

You can solve inequalities with variables just like you can solve equations

with variables. Use what you already know about solving equations to solve

inequalities. Like equations, you can add, subtract, multiply, or divide both

sides of an inequality with the same number. In other words, what you do

to one side of an inequality, you must do to the other side.

Example: 2x + 3 < 1

Subtract 3 from both sides of the inequality:

2x + 3 – 3 < 1 – 3

Simplify both sides of the inequality:

2x < –2

Divide both sides of the inequality by 2:

–2

452

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453

Simplify both sides of the inequality:

x < –1

The answer for this example is the inequality x < –1. There is an inﬁnite

(endless) number of solutions because every number less than –1 is an

answer. In this problem, the number –1 is not an answer because the

inequality states that your answers must be numbers less than –1.

Did you notice the similarity between solving equations and solving

inequalities? You can see that the previous example was solved using the

same steps you would use if you were solving an equation.

However, there are some differences between solving equations and solv-

ing inequalities. Notice what happens when you multiply or divide an

inequality by a negative number.

2 < 5

–2 ¥ 2 < 5 ¥ –2

–4 < –10

However, –4 is not less than –10. So –4 < –10 is a false statement. To cor-

rect it, you would have to rewrite it as –4 > –10.

You can solve inequalities using the same methods that you use to solve

equations with these exceptions:

■

When you multiply or divide an inequality by a negative

number, you must reverse the inequality symbol.

■

The answer to an inequality will always be an inequality.

Set 30

Solve each inequality.

397. x + 3 < 10

398. 2x + 5 < 7

399. –3x < 9

501 GMAT

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400. 5x + 1 < 11

401. You are treating a friend to a movie. You will buy 2 tickets and

spend $8 on concessions. If you don’t want to spend more than

$20, how much can you spend on each ticket?

402. You are pricing lawn furniture and plan to buy 4 chairs. You don’t

want to spend more than $120. What is the most you can spend on

one chair?

403. You are going to a restaurant for lunch. You have $15 to spend.

Your beverage is $2.50, and you will leave a $2 tip. How much can

you spend on the entrée?

404. You own a gift shop. You bought a case of candles for $144. There

are 12 candles in a case. What do you need to sell each candle for

to make a proﬁt?

Set 31

Now it is time to answer GMAT problem-solving practice questions that

have been designed to test your algebra skills. Remember:

■

Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices

given.

■

All numbers used are real numbers.

■

A ﬁgure accompanying a problem-solving question is intended

to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures

are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated

in a speciﬁc problem that the ﬁgure is not drawn to scale.

Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All ﬁgures lie in a

plane unless otherwise indicated.

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Questions

405. Simplify

___________

+ 7x + 10

_______

– 25

+ 6x

15x

_________

15x

(x – 5)

_____

x + 5

_____

–5x

x –5

d. 5x

(x – 5)

____

x –5

406. Factor the trinomial 4x

–9x –9

a. (4x + 3)(x + 3)

b. (4x + 3)(x – 3)

c. (8x – 6)(x + 3)

d. (4x + 3)(3x + 1)

e. (2x – 3)(2x – 3)

18x

407. Simplify the expression

________

20x

_____

10x

_______

___

____

_____

10y

408. Multiply (x + 3)

a. x

+ 9x + 9

b. x

+ 6x –9

c. x

–9

d. x

+ 6x + 9

e. x

+ 6

409. |3x + 9| < 15

a. x < –2 or x > 8

b. x > –2 and x < 8

c. x < 2 and x > –8

d. x > 2 or x < –8

e. none of the above

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410.

8+ 8 1

a. 13

b. 89

c. 17

d. 33

e. 11

411. Annie has a total of 100 dimes and quarters. If the total value of

the coins is $14.05, how many quarters does she have?

a. 3

b. 40

c. 56

d. 73

e. 27

412. Which equation is part of the process of completing the square for

– 8x + 4 = 49?

a. (x + 8)

= 11

b. (x – 8)

= 67

c. (x – 4)

= 61

d. (x + 4)

= 19

e. (x + 2)

= 11

413. The sum of x

and 7x is –10. What is one possible answer for x?

a. x = –2

b. x = 5

c. x = 2

d. x = 10

e. x = –7

414. In the following sequence, each term is 6 greater than the previous

term. Which of the following could NOT be a term in the

sequence?

–36, –30, –24, –18, . . .

a. –492

b. 256

c. 344

d. 510

e. 678

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457

415. (37)

a. 50,653

b. 49,453

c. 50,427

d. 49,867

e. 50,238

Set 32

Now it is time to answer GMAT data sufﬁciency practice questions that

have been designed to test your algebra skills. Good luck!

416. Is x > y?

II. x and y are both positive integers.

II. x ÷ y > 1

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

417. In a sequence, what is the ﬁfth term?

II. The sum of the ﬁrst term and fourth term is equal to the

ﬁfth term.

II. All numbers are multiples of the ﬁrst term.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

501 GMAT

Questions

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418. Are x and y positive integers?

II. xy is positive.

II. x

and y

are both positive.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

419. Annie and Alexi are running a race. When the race starts Alexi

starts running 9 ft. per second. Annie starts 10 seconds later

because she forgot to stretch. She is running at a pace of 10 ft. per

second. If they keep going at the same pace, who will win?

II. Their distance after 20 seconds is equal.

II. It is a 500 ft. race.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

420. A ball is dropped off a balcony 49 ft. high. How long will it take to

hit the ground?

II. The acceleration of the ball toward the ground is –9.8 m/s.

II. The ball weighs 3 lbs.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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Questions

421. Are x and y consecutive integers?

II. x + y = 15

II. x – y = 3

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

422. Find the values of x and y.

II. 3x + 2 = y – 7

II. 4x – 12y = 36

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but

NEITHER statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

423. The sum of the polynomials is 4x + 6. What are the two

polynomials?

II. The difference of the two is 0.

II. The product of the two polynomials is 4x

+ 12x + 9.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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Questions

424.

Eric was buying cookies and Pop-Tarts. He bought 5 cookies and

10 Pop–Tarts for $12.50. How much were the cookies?

II. Pop-Tarts are $1.00.

II. You can buy 20 cookies and 20 Pop-Tarts for $30.00.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

425. What is the value of x in the following expression?

_______

12ab

II. The simpliﬁed expression has a coefﬁcient of 3 in the

denominator.

II. The resulting exponent of c in the simpliﬁed answer is 9.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

426. The expression 4x + 9 – 2(5x + 1) is equal to a number. What is the

number?

II. The number is 9 less than twice the value of x.

II. The number is an integer and is less than x.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

461

501 GMAT

Questions

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427. Kline spent three hours on the phone with her brother. 20% of

that time was spent talking about work. The rest of the time was

spent talking about her boyfriend, weekend plans, and new kitten.

How much time did she spend talking about her kitten?

II. She spent twice as long talking about her boyfriend as on

work and her weekend plans combined.

II. She spent the same amount of time on the kitten as she did

on her weekend plans.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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Answers

Set 22

367. This sequence actually has two alternating sets of numbers. The

ﬁrst number is doubled, giving the third number. The second

number has 4 subtracted from it, giving the fourth number.

Therefore, the next number will be 12 doubled, or 24.

368. This is a multiplication sequence with repetition. The decimals

(0.2, 0.4, 0.8) are repeated by fractions with the same values

(

5 5 5

) and are then multiplied by 2. Thus, the next number

will be 0.8 ¥ 2, or 1.6.

Set 23

369. 5

= 5 · 5 = 25

370. 2

= 2 · 2 · 2 = 8

371. a

= (a · a · a)(a · a · a · a) = a

3+4

= a

Set 24

372. 12. Use the rule

a × b = a × b

to get

12 × 12 = 12 × 12 = 144

= 12.

373. . Use the rule

/ b

to get

b 4

374. 7. Solve and add:

= 3 + 4 = 7

375. 5. Add the numbers under the radical, then take the square

root:

91+ 6= 25

= 5

Set 25

376. Use the associative property of addition: (5a + 2a) + 7a

Add like terms: [5a + 2a = 7a]

Substitute the results into the original expression: (7a) + 7a

Add like terms: 7a + 7a = 14a

The simpliﬁed result of the algebraic expression is: 14a

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377. Use the commutative property of addition to move like terms

together: 7a + 3a + 6b

Use the associative property for addition: (7a + 3a) + 6b

Add like terms: [(7a + 3a) = 10a]

Substitute: (10a) + 6b

The simpliﬁed result of the algebraic expression is: 10a + 6b

378. Change subtraction to addition and change the sign of the term

that follows: 4x + 2y + (–x) + 3y

Use the commutative property of addition to move like terms

together: 4x + (–x) + 2y + 3y

Use the associative property for addition: (4x + –x) + (2y + 3y)

Add like terms: [4x + –x = +3x = 3x]

[2y + 3y = 5y]

Substitute the results into the expression: (4x + –x) + (2y + 3y) =

(3x) + (5y)

The simpliﬁed algebraic expression is: 3x + 5y

379. Change subtraction to addition and change the sign of the term

that follows: 27 + –3m + 12 + –5m

Use the commutative property for addition to put like terms

together: 27 + 12 + –3m + –5m

Use the associative property for addition: (27 + 12) + (–3m + –5m)

Add like terms: [27 + 12 = 39]

[–3m + –5m = –8m]

Substitute the results into the expression: (27 + 12) + (–3m + –5m)

= (39) + (–8m)

Rewrite addition of a negative term as subtraction of a positive

term by changing addition to subtraction and changing the sign of

the following term: 39 – +8m = 39 – 8m

The simpliﬁed algebraic expression is: 39 – 8m

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Questions

380. Change subtraction to addition and change the sign of the term

that follows: 7h + 6 + 2w + (–3) + h

Use the commutative property for addition to put like terms

together: 7h + h + 2w + 6 + –3

Use the associative property for addition: (7h + h) + 2w + (6 + –3)

Add like terms: [(7h + h) = 8h]

[(6 + –3) = 3]

Substitute the result into the expression: (8h) + 2w + (3)

The simpliﬁed algebraic expression is: 8h + 2w + 3

381. Substitute 2 for the variable a and 4 for the variable b. When the

expression is written as 2b, it means 2 times b: 2b + a

Multiply 2 · 4: 2(4) + 2

Add the numbers: 8 + 2

= 10

382. Substitute 2 for a, 3 for b, and 7 for c: a

+ 2b + c

Find the value of 2

: (2)

+ 2(3) + 7

Multiply 2 · 3: 4 + 2(3) + 7

Add the numbers: 4 + 6 + 7

= 17

Set 26

383. 14. Add 5 to both sides of the equation: x – 5 + 5 = 9 + 5

Simplify both sides of the equation: x + 0 = 14

Add 0 to x: x = 14

384. 1. Subtract 6 from both sides of the equation: a + 6 – 6 = 7 – 6

Simplify both sides of the equation: a + 0 = 1

Add 0 to a: a = 1

385. 19. Add 11 to both sides of the equation: y – 11 + 11 = 8 + 11

Simplify both sides of the equation: y + 0 = 19

Add 0 to y: y = 19

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Questions

386. –4. Subtract 9 from both sides of the equation: –r + 9 – 9 = 13 – 9

Simplify both sides of the equation: –r + 0 = 4

Add 0 to –r: –r = 4

The value of the variable must be positive, but in this equation, r is

negative. You can make it positive by multiplying both sides of the

equation by –1.

(–1)(–r) = 4(–1)

r = –4

387. 15. Add 7 to both sides: d – 7 + 7 = 8 + 7

d = 15

388. –1. Add 5 to both sides: x – 5 + 5 = –6 + 5

x = –1

Set 27

389. 26. Multiply both sides by 2:

¥ 2 = 13 ¥

2, x = 26.

390. 15. Multiply both sides by 5:

¥ 5 = 3 ¥ 5, x = 15.

Set 28

391. 6 years. Substitute what you know into the formula: $630 = $3,000

¥ 3.5% ¥ t, or 630 = 3,000 ¥ .035t. Simplify the equation:

630 = 105t. Divide both sides of the equation by 105: t =

630

___

105

Simplify both sides of the equation: 6 = t. It would take 6 years to

earn $630.

392. 5 hours. Substitute what you know into the formula: 300 = 60t.

Divide both sides of the equation by 60: t =

300

___

. Simplify both

sides of the equation: 5 = t. It would take you 5 hours to travel

300 miles.

Set 29

393. 9. Let x = the number of men in the class. Then, 2 times the

number of men is equal to the number of women. You can

represent that in the equation 2x = 18. x = 9; therefore, there are

9 men in the class.

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Questions

394.

$5,300. Let x = ﬁrst monthly paycheck. Then, x = 4 ¥ 40 ¥ $17.50

+ $2,500; x = $5,300.

395. $10,500. Grace sells real estate and receives a 6% commission for

every residential property that she sells. To ﬁnd how much

commission she would receive if she sold a home for $175,000,

label the commission with the variable c, and rewrite 6% as .06:

c = .06 ¥ $175,000; c = $10,500.

396. 36. There are 40 questions on a test. To ﬁnd out many questions

you must answer correctly to score 90%, rewrite 90% as 90 out of

100 and set up a proportion to see how many points, p, out of 40

are needed:

___

. Cross multiply: 40 ¥ 9 = 10p; 360 = 10p.

100

Divide both sides by 10: p = 36.

Set 30

397. x < 7. Subtract 3 from both sides of the inequality.

398. x < 1. Subtract 5 from both sides of the inequality. Then, divide

both sides by 2.

399. x > –3. Divide both sides of the inequality by –3. Remember, when

you multiply or divide an inequality by a negative number, you

must reverse the inequality symbol.

400. x < 2. Subtract 1 from both sides of the inequality. Then, divide

both sides by 5.

401. x < $6. 2x + 8 < $20; x < $6. You can spend up to $6 on the tickets.

402. x < $30. 4x < 120; x < $30. The most you can spend on a chair is

$30.

403. x < $10.50. x + $2.50 + $2.00 < $15.00; x < $10.50. You can spend

up to $10.50 on the entrée.

404. x > $12. 12x > $144; x > $12. You need to sell each candle for

> $12.

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Set 31

405. c. Start simplifying the problem by changing the second rational

expression to its reciprocal and changing the division symbol

to a multiplication symbol. Factor each numerator and

denominator. The factored form of the rational expression is

___________

(x + 2)(x + 5)

(x + 5)

___________

15x

(x + 5)(x – 5)

. The (x + 5)s and the (x + 2)s cancel.

Reduce the 15x

and 3x

by dividing the coefﬁcients by 3 and

subtracting the exponents. Leave the x

in the numerator since the

exponent in the numerator is bigger. The other choices have

reducing errors, are still unsimpliﬁed, or do not have the correct

terms in the denominator.

406. b. Find the factors of 4x

and –9 that multiply and add to make

–9x. 4x and x are both factors of 4x

. 3 and –3 are factors of –9.

Testing them in the polynomials (4x + 3)(x – 3) will yield the

answer when multiplied together. The other choices include

switched signs and added values instead of multiplication.

407. a. Simplify the coefﬁcients and subtract the exponents.

reduces to

, and when the powers of x are subtracted they

yield x

in the denominator. When the powers of y are subtracted

they yield y

in the numerator, and when the powers of z are

subtracted they yield z

in the numerator. The other choices

subtracted the coefﬁcients, performed the wrong operation with

the exponents, or have incorrect placement of x in the numerator.

408. d. A squared binomial means you can write out the binomial

multiplied by itself (x + 3)(x + 3). When each term in the ﬁrst set

of parentheses is multiplied by each term in the second set of

parentheses it yields the answer. x(x) + x(3) + 3(x) + 3(3) = x

+ 3x +

3x + 9. Combine like terms to get x

+ 6x + 9. The other choices

include squaring each term, multiplying when combining like

terms, or sign errors.

409. c. Start by splitting the absolute value portion into its two possible

outcomes 3x + 9 < 15 and 3x + 9 > –15. Solve each by subtracting 9

from both sides, yielding 3x < 6 and 3x > –24. In both inequalities,

divide by 3, resulting in x < 2 and x > –8. Incorrect choices include

reversed inequalities and incorrect signs.

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410. e. The cube root of 8 is 2, and the square root of 81 is 9. 2 + 9 =

11. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect due to incorrect usage of

order of operations and incorrect use of a cubed root.

411. e. Start by setting up two equations. q + d = 100 refers to the

number of quarters added to the number of dimes equaling 100.

25q + 10d = 1,405 refers to the value of the quarters added to the

value of the dimes equaling their combined value of 1,405 cents.

Using the method of linear combination, or elimination, multiply

the second equation by –10 to cancel the ds. Then combine the

two equations –10q – 10d = –1,000 with 25q + 10d = 1,405. This

results is 15q = 405. Divide both sides by 15 to get q = 27. The

incorrect choices are incorrect estimations with guess and check,

and also the value of the dimes.

412. c. Start by subtracting on each side of the equation to isolate the

constants on the right. This will give you x

– 8x = 45. Next ﬁnd

the value that will make x

– 8x a perfect square trinomial. Add

16 to both sides, yielding x

– 8x + 16 = 61. Factor the left into

(x – 4)(x – 4) and rewrite as a binomial squared. This gives you

(x – 4)

= 61. The incorrect choices contain incorrect factoring,

missing negative signs, or incorrect addition and subtraction.

413. a. Start by setting up the equation x

+ 7x = –10. Add 10 to both

sides to get x

+ 7x + 10 = 0. Factor the left side of the equation

(x + 5)(x + 2) = 0. Using the zero product property, you can assume

that x + 5 = 0 or x + 2 = 0. Solving both equations gives you the

solution set x = –5 and x = –2. The incorrect choices are the values

factored without using the zero product property and a number

seen initially in the problem.

414. c. Because each term in the sequence is 6 greater than the

previous term, every term, positive or negative, in the sequence

must be divisible by six. Choice c is the only solution that is not

evenly divisible by 6. (344 ÷ 6 = 57.333)

415. a. This problem is a lengthy multiplication problem: (37)

37 ¥ 37 ¥ 37 = 50,653. All the other choices are variations of

multiplication errors.

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416. b. Statement (II) is the only sufﬁcient statement because if x ÷ y is

greater than 1, it means x must be a larger number that y is able to

go into it at least once. Statement (I) does not provide any

information regarding the relationship between x and y.

417. e. The statements do not provide enough information to

determine the numbers in a sequence. The ﬁrst statement suggests

that the sequence is increasing by the value of the ﬁrst term, but it

does not explicitly state the value of the ﬁrst term. This pattern

would work for any sequence increasing by the ﬁrst variable

(2, 4, 6, 8, (2 + 8 =10) 10) or (25, 50, 75, 100 (25 + 100 = 125) 125).

The second statement tells you the numbers are all multiples of

the ﬁrst term but again does not explicitly state the value of the

ﬁrst term. The previously mentioned sequences could work for

this pattern as well.

418. e. Neither of these statements can strictly determine whether both

x and y are positive. Given the ﬁrst statement, x and y could either

both be positive, or both be negative. The same goes given the

second statement. Both statements can be deceiving if you forget

that the product of two negative numbers is a positive number.

419. b. If Annie runs at a rate of 9 fps with a 10-second penalty going a

distance of 500 feet, her distance equation will be 500 = 9(T + 10)

based on distance = speed(time). Alexi’s distance equation will be

500 = 10T. When both are solved, we ﬁnd that Alexi’s time was

50 seconds and Annie’s time was 45, which means Annie won the

race. We cannot use the second piece of information because we

don’t know whether the race lasted for more or less than 2 minutes.

420. a. To ﬁnd how long (or the time) it will take the ball to hit the

ground, you would need to know its speed. The ﬁrst statement

gives you the acceleration, and from there you can ﬁnd the time.

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

–9.8 m/s = 49m ÷ time

49 ÷ 9.8 = 5 seconds

The weight of the ball does not affect the answer, and the

acceleration already takes the weight into account. Therefore, only

the ﬁrst statement is needed.

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421.

b. Statement (I) is not enough because x and y might be 7 and 8.

Statement (II) is sufﬁcient because if you subtract 2 consecutive

integers, the difference should be 1.

422. e. Both statements together are insufﬁcient because if the

equations are manipulated, they become the same, and you cannot

solve for each variable. You end up with only trivial solutions,

which is to say x and y could be anything.

423. d. Statement (I) indicates that since the difference of the two

polynomials is 0, they are the same. So you could take the sum of

them and divide by 2

______

4x + 6

= 2x + 3. Statement (II) is sufﬁcient

because the only trinomial that adds to 4x + 6 are the two

binomials (2x + 3)(2x + 3) you get from factoring 4x

+ 12x + 9.

424. d. The problem gives you enough to set up the following

equation, 5c + 10p = $12.50. The ﬁrst statement gives you the value

of variable p, and from there you can solve for c.

5c + 10p = $12.50

5c + 10(1.00) = $12.50

5c + 10 = 12.50

5c = 2.50

c = 0.50

The second statement gives you enough information to set up a

second equation using both variables, p and c, and then you can use

elimination to solve for each variable.

5c + 10p = $12.50

20c + 20p = $30.00

–2(5c + 10p) = –2($12.50)

20c + 20p = $30.00

–10c – 20p = $–25.00

20c + 20p = $ 30.00

10c = $ 5.00

c = 0.50

Either statement (I) or statement (II) provides enough information

independently to solve for the price of the cookies.

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425. e. Statement (I) is insufﬁcient because as long as x > 1 there will

be a coefﬁcient in the denominator of 3. Statement (II) is also

insufﬁcient because the exponent of c

could be in the numerator

or the denominator, which leaves us two possibilities for the value

of x, 21 and 3.

426. a. Statement (I) provides a way to set up an algebraic expression

that is in terms of x. Replace the number in the original equation

with its equivalent expression; an expression is formed that has a

solution 4x + 9 – 2(5x + 1) = 2x – 9. Statement (II) provides

insufﬁcient information because there are multiple instances in

which the integer could be less than x. If x were 5, the number

would be –23. If x were 6 the number would be –29.

427. c. Statement (I) alone is insufﬁcient because if Kline spent twice

as long talking about her boyfriend than talking about her work

and weekend combined, the amount of time she spent talking with

her boyfriend is still variable, and how long she talked about the

kitten is still unknown. The addition of statement (II) puts

everything in terms of one variable. An expression representing the

time spent talking about her boyfriend is 2(20 + w), where w = time

talked about work. Since time talked about work is the same as

time talked about the kitten, both can be represented as w. An

equation can be set up representing the situation: (20) + (40 + 2w)

+ (w) + (w) = 100, since each is a percent. The simpliﬁed expression

is 60 + 4w = 100, and when 60 is subtracted from both sides, the

result is 4w = 40, which when divided by 4 results in w = 10. With

this information, you can tell that 10% of the time Kline talked

about her kitten, and 10% of 3 hours is 18 minutes.

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Geometry

Geometry questions account for about 25% of the GMAT quan-

titative section. The key to tackling geometry questions is to know the

properties of different shapes and several key formulas, which are reviewed

in this chapter, including:

■

angles

■

lines

■

triangles

■

quadrilaterals

■

circles

■

coordinate geometry

Classifying Angles

In geometry, an angle is formed by two rays with a common endpoint. The

symbol used to indicate an angle is –. The two rays are the sides of the

angle. The common endpoint is the vertex of the angle.

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Angles that make a square corner are called right angles (see the follow-

ing examples for more details about what makes an angle a right angle). In

drawings, the following symbol is used to indicate a right angle:

Opposite rays are two rays with the same endpoint that form a line. They

form a straight angle. A straight angle has a 180° measure.

An acute angle has a measure between 0° and 90°. Here are two examples

of acute angles.

A right angle has a 90° measure. The corner of a piece of paper will ﬁt

exactly into a right angle. Here are two examples of right angles.

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An obtuse angle has a measure between 90° and 180°. Here are two exam-

ples of obtuse angles.

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Set 33

Use the ﬁgure to answer the following practice problems.

N O

428. Name three acute angles.

429. Name three obtuse angles.

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430. Name two straight angles.

431. Determine the largest angle shown, and write it two ways.

432. If –MON measures 27°, then –JOK measures ________ degrees.

Congruent Angles and Angle Pairs

When two angles have the same degree measure, they are said to be

congruent.

Names are given to three special angle pairs, based on their relationship

to each other:

■

Complementary angles: two angles whose sum is 90°.

■

Supplementary angles: two angles whose sum is 180°.

■

Vertical angles: two angles that are opposite each other when

two lines cross.

When two lines cross, the adjacent angles are supplementary, and the

sum of all four angles is 360°.

Perpendicular and Parallel Lines

Perpendicular lines are another type of intersecting lines. Perpendicular lines

meet to form right angles. Right angles always measure 90°. In the follow-

ing ﬁgure, lines x and y are perpendicular:

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Parallel lines lie in the same plane and don’t cross at any point.

The arrowheads on the lines indicate that they are parallel.

Angle–Pair Problems

Angle–pair problems tend to ask for an angle’s complement or supplement.

Example: If m–A = 35°, what is the size of its complement?

To ﬁnd an angle’s complement, subtract it from 90°:

90° − 35° = 55°

Example: If m–A = 35°, what is the size of its supplement?

To ﬁnd an angle’s supplement, subtract it from 180°:

180° − 35° = 145°

Set 34

Answer the following problems.

433. What is the complement of a 30° angle?

434. What is the complement of a 5° angle?

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435. What is the supplement of a 5° angle?

436. What is the supplement of a 100° angle?

Triangles

You can classify triangles by the lengths of their sides. Below are three

examples of special triangles called equilateral, isosceles, and scalene triangles.

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Yo u c a n a l s o c l a s s i f y t r i a n g l e s b y t h e m e a s u r e m e n t s o f t h e i r a n g l e s . H e r e a r e

four examples of special triangles. They are called acute, equiangular, right,

and obtuse triangles.

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Set 35

Classify each triangle described as equilateral, isosceles, or scalene.

437. DABC with AB = 10, BC = 10, and AC = 8.

438. DDEF with DE = 6, EF = 8, and DF = 10.

439. DXYZ with XY = 7, YZ = 7, and XZ = 7.

Classify each triangle described as acute, right, obtuse, or equiangular.

440. DMNO with m–M = 130°, m–N = 30°, and m–O = 20°.

441. DRST with m–R = 80°, m–S = 45°, and m–T = 55°.

442. DGHI with m–G = 20°, m–H = 70°, and m–I = 90°.

Area of a Triangle

To ﬁnd the area of a triangle, use this formula:

area =

(base ¥ height)

Although any side of a triangle may be called its base, it’s often easiest to use

the side on the bottom. To use another side, rotate the page and view the

triangle from another perspective.

A triangle’s height (or altitude) is represented by a perpendicular line

drawn from the angle opposite the base to the base. Depending on the tri-

angle, the height may be inside, outside, or on the legs of the triangle.

Triangle Rules

Rule 1. The sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°:

–A + –B + –C = 180°

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Example: One base angle of an isosceles triangle is 30°. Find the

measure of the vertex angle.

Draw a picture of an isosceles triangle. Drawing it to scale helps. Since it

is an isosceles triangle, draw both base angles the same size (as close to 30°

as you can) and make sure the sides opposite them are the same length.

Label one base angle as 30°.

30˚

Since the base angles are congruent, label the other base angle as 30°.

There are two steps needed to ﬁnd the vertex angle:

■

Add the two base angles together: 30° + 30° = 60°

■

The sum of all three angles in a triangle is 180°.

To ﬁnd the measure of the vertex angle, subtract the sum of the two base

angles (60°) from 180°:

180° − 60° = 120°

Thus, the measure of the vertex angle is 120°.

Add all 3 angles together to make sure their sum is 180°:

Rule 2. The longest side of a triangle is opposite the largest angle.

This rule implies that the second longest side is opposite the second

largest angle, and the shortest side is opposite the smallest angle.

largest angle

shortest

side

smallest

angle

longest side

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Example: In the following triangle, which side is the shortest?

slant

height

base

Determine the size of –A, the missing angle, by adding the two known

angles and then subtracting their sum from 180°:

90° + 46° = 136°

180° − 136° = 44°

Thus –A is 44°.

Since –A is the smallest angle, side a (opposite –A) is the shortest side.

Rule 3. Right triangles have a rule of their own. Using the Pythagorean the-

orem, you can calculate the missing side of a right triangle.

a c

a² + b² = c²

(c refers to the hypotenuse)

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Example: What is the perimeter of the following triangle?

3 5

Since the perimeter is the sum of the lengths of the sides, we must ﬁrst ﬁnd

the missing side. Use the Pythagorean Theorem:

a² + b² = c²

Substitute the given sides for two of the letters. To solve this equation, sub-

tract 9 from both sides:

+ b

= 5

9 + b

= 25

9 – b

= 25 –9

= 16

Then take the square root of both sides.

= 16

b = 4

Thus, the missing side has a length of 4 units.

Adding the three sides yields a perimeter of 12:

3 + 4 + 5 = 12

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Quadrilaterals

A quadrilateral is four–sided polygon. Three common quadrilaterals are

shown here:

Rectangle

4 4

Square

4 4

Parallelogram

6 6

These quadrilaterals have something in common besides having four

sides:

■

Opposite sides are the same length and parallel.

■

Opposite angles are the same size.

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However, each quadrilateral has its own distinguishing characteristics as

given on the table that follows.

Sides Rectangle Square Parallelogram

Angles The horizontal

sides don’t have

to be the same

length as the

vertical sides. All

the angles are

right angles.

All four sides are

the same length.

All the angles

are right angles.

The horizontal

sides don’t have

to be the same

length as the

vertical sides.

The opposite

angles are the

same size, but

they don’t have

to be right

angles. (A paral-

lelogram can

look like a rec-

tangle leaning to

one side.)

The naming conventions for quadrilaterals are similar to those for

triangles:

■

The ﬁgure is named by the letters at its four corners, usually in

alphabetical order: rectangle ABCD.

■

A side is named by the letters at its ends: side AB.

■

An angle is named by its vertex letter: –A.

485

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The sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°:

–A + –B + –C + –D = 360°

To ﬁnd the perimeter of a quadrilateral, follow this simple rule:

Perimeter = sum of all four sides

To ﬁnd the area of a rectangle, square, or parallelogram, use this formula:

Area = base ¥ height

The base is the size of the side on the bottom. The height (or altitude) is the

length of a perpendicular line drawn from the base to the side opposite it.

The height of a rectangle and a square is the same as the length of its ver-

tical side.

Rectangle

height

base

Square

height

base

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A parallelogram’s height is not necessarily the same as the length of its ver-

tical side (called the slant height); it is found instead by drawing a perpendi-

cular line from the base to the side opposite it—the length of this line equals

the height of the parallelogram.

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slant

height

base

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The area formula for the rectangle and square may be expressed in an

equivalent form as:

Area = length ¥ width

Example: Find the area of a rectangle with a base of 4 meters and a

height of 3 meters.

Draw the rectangle as close to scale as possible. Label the size of the base

and height.

Write the area formula, then substitute the base and height numbers into

it:

A = b ¥ h

A = 4 ¥ 3 = 12

Thus, the area is 12 square meters.

Set 36

Answer the following practice problems.

443. All squares are also rectangles.

a. True

b. False

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444.

All rectangles are also squares.

a. True

b. False

445. Some rectangles are also squares.

a. True

b. False

446. All squares and rectangles are also parallelograms.

a. True

b. False

447. What is the length of a side of a square room whose perimeter is

58 feet?

448. Find the dimensions of a rectangle with a perimeter of 16 feet

whose long side is 3 times the length of its short side.

449. What is the length in feet of a parking lot that has an area of 8,400

square feet and a width of 70 feet?

Circles

A circle is a set of points that are all the same distance from a given point

called the center.

center

Yo u ar e l ik el y t o c o me a cr os s t h e fo ll ow in g t e rm s w he n de a li ng w it h

circles:

Radius: The distance from the center of the circle to any point on the cir-

cle itself. The symbol r is used for the radius.

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Diameter: The length of a line that passes across a circle through the cen-

ter. The diameter is twice the size of the radius. The symbol d is used for

the diameter.

The circumference of a circle is the distance around the circle (compara-

ble to the concept of the perimeter of a polygon). To determine the cir-

cumference of a circle, use either of these two equivalent formulas:

Circumference = 2pr

Circumference = pd

The formulas should be written out as (2 ¥p¥r) or (p¥d). It helps to

know that:

r is the radius

d is the diameter

p is approximately equal to 3.14, or

Example: Find the circumference of a circle whose radius is 7 inches.

Draw this circle and write the radius version of the circumference formula

(because you’re given the radius):

7 in.

Substitute 7 for the radius:

C = 2pr

C = 2 ¥p¥7

C = 2 ¥p¥7; C = 14p

Example: What is the diameter of a circle whose circumference is

62.8 centimeters? Use 3.14 for p.

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Draw a circle with its diameter and write the diameter version of the cir-

cumference formula (because you’re asked to ﬁnd the diameter):

C = πd

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Substitute 62.8 for the circumference, 3.14 for p, and solve the equation.

62.8 = 3.14 ¥ d

62.8 = 3.14 ¥ 20

The diameter is 20 centimeters.

The area of a circle is the space its surface occupies. To determine the

area of a circle, use this formula:

Area = pr²

The formula can be written out as p¥r ¥ r.

Example: Find the area of the following circle, rounded to the nearest

tenth.

2.3 in.

Write the area formula:

A = pr²

Substitute 2.3 for the radius:

A = p¥2.3 ¥ 2.3

A = 5.3p

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Example: What is the diameter of a circle whose area is 9 square cen-

timeters?

501 GMAT

Questions

Draw a circle with its diameter (to help you remember that the question

asks for the diameter), then write the area formula. (Note: Refer to Chap-

ter 10 if you need help with square roots.)

A = pr²

Substitute 9p for the area and solve the equation:

9p = pr²

9 = r²

3 = r

Since the radius is 3 centimeters, the diameter is 6 centimeters.

Set 37

Find the approximate circumference of each circle shown or described. Use

3.14 for p.

450.

15 ft.

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451.

11 in.

452.

d = 7 m

453. r = 25 m

Find the approximate area for each circle shown or described. Use 3.14

for p.

454.

10 ft.

455.

8 m

456. r = 13 cm

457. d = 24 in.

Surface Area of a Cylinder

When you are looking for the surface area of a cylinder, you need to ﬁnd

the area of two circles (the bases) and the area of the curved surface that

makes up the side of the cylinder. The area of the curved surface is hard to

visualize when it is rolled up. Picture a paper towel roll. It has a circular top

and bottom. When you unroll a sheet of the paper towel, it is shaped like

a rectangle. The area of the curved surface is the area of a rectangle with the

same height as the cylinder, and the base measurement is the same as the

circumference of the circle base.

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Surface area of a cylinder = area of two circles + area of rectangle

= 2pr

+ bh

= 2pr

+ 2prh

Volume of a Cylinder

You can ﬁnd the volume of a cylinder by ﬁnding the product of the area of

the base and the height of the ﬁgure. Of course, the base of a cylinder is a

circle, so you need to ﬁnd the area of a circle times the height.

Theorem: The volume (V ) of a cylinder is the product of the area of the

base (B) and the height (h).

V = Bh or V = pr

Volume of a Cone

A cone relates to a cylinder in the same way that a pyramid relates to a

prism. If you have a cone and a cylinder with the same radius and height,

it would take three of the cones to ﬁll the cylinder. In other words, the cone

holds one-third the amount of the cylinder.

V = Bh or V = pr

V =

Bh or V =

Coordinate Geometry

The two axes divide the coordinate plane into four regions, which are called

quadrants. The quadrants are numbered counterclockwise beginning with

the upper-right region. The coordinates (x,y) of a point are an ordered pair

of numbers. The ﬁrst number is the x coordinate. The second number is

the y coordinate. The coordinates of the origin are (0,0).

Each point on the coordinate plane has its own unique ordered pair. You

can think of an ordered pair as an address. Now that you have located a

point, you can also ﬁnd the coordinates of a point on a graph.

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Example: Find the coordinates of each point.

Solution:

A(2,2)

B(–3,1)

C(0,4)

D(–4,–2)

E(2,–3)

F(5,0)

The distance d between any two points A(x

) and B(x

) is

d =

( x

2 2

− x

) + ( y

− y

)

The slope of a line is the measure of its steepness. The slope of a line is

determined by the ratio of its rise to run. When looking at a line on a coor-

dinate grid, always count the run before you count the rise. When a line

points up to the right, it has a positive slope. A line with a negative slope

points up to the left.

Yo u ca n a l s o u s e a f o rm u l a t o d e t e r m i n e t h e s l o p e o f a l i ne c o n t a i n i n g t w o

points, point A(x

) and point B(x

). Here is the formula:

slope =

– y

______

– x

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Set 38

Use a formula to ﬁnd the slope of the line through each pair of points.

458. (0,0) and (5,6)

459. (–3,–2) and (–4,–3)

460. (1,–3) and (–1,–3)

461. (5,–6) and (–2,8)

Set 39

Now it is time to answer GMAT data sufﬁciency practice questions that

have been designed to test your algebra skills. Good luck!

462. The area of a quadrilateral is 81 – 25x

; what is the value of x?

II. Its base is 9 – 5x long.

II. The shape is a square.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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463. Is BD a perpendicular bisector of AC?

II. Angle AC = 180°

II. AB = BC

A B C

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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464. Are angle A and angle B supplementary?

II. Angle A – angle B = 10°

II. LM || ND

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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465.

Is the circumference of circle B > 10?

II. Radius of the circle A = 9

II. XY = 2YZ

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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499

466. What is the measure of angle A?

II. Angle B and angle C are complementary.

II. Angle B = 30°

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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467. Are the areas of the rectangle and triangle the same?

II. The triangle height is twice the height of the rectangle.

II. The triangle and the rectangle have the same base.

b b

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

Use the following image to answer questions 468 and 469.

B C X Z

500

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501

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468.

Are the triangles similar?

II. Angle A = angle X

II. 3AB = XY

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

469. Are the triangle areas congruent?

II. They both have an inferior angle of 30°.

II. They both have two sides that are 3 units and 5 units in

length.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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502

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Questions

470.

Find the volume of both cubes.

II. a = 4

II. The volume of the small cube is 64.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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503

471. Is BC || to DF?

II. Angle J + angle E = 180°

II. Angle H = angle I

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

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472. Is triangle abc an equilateral triangle?

II. Angle a ÷ angle b = 1

II. Angle b – angle a = 0

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

473. Find the surface area of a cube.

II. The volume of the cube is 27 cm

II. The surface area is six times the area of one side.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

504

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505

474. The circumference of a circle is 2xp. What is the value of x?

II. The radius is equal to x.

II. The area of the circle is the same as double the diameter

minus 1.

a. Statement (I) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (II) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

b. Statement (II) ALONE is sufﬁcient, but statement (I) ALONE

is not sufﬁcient.

c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufﬁcient, but NEITHER

statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

d. EACH statement ALONE is sufﬁcient.

e. Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufﬁcient.

Set 40

Now it is time to answer GMAT problem-solving practice questions that

have been designed to test your geometry skills. Good luck!

■

Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices

given.

■

All numbers used are real numbers.

■

A ﬁgure accompanying a problem-solving question is intended

to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures

are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated

in a speciﬁc problem that the ﬁgure is not drawn to scale.

Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All ﬁgures lie in a

plane unless otherwise indicated.

475. Find the slope of the line passing through the two points (3,–5)

(–2,–5).

a. m = 2

b. m = 0

c. m = –2

d. m = 5

e. undeﬁned slope

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506

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Questions

476.

Find the y intercept of the equation 3x + 6y = 12

a. 4

c. 3

d. 6

e. 2

477. What is the equation of the following graph?

–6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

–1

–2

–3

–4

–5

–6

a. y = –3x + 1

b. y = 3x + 1

c. y =

x + 1

d. y = –

x + 1

e. y = –x + 3

478. Which of the following statements about the lines 3x + 5y = 10 and

–10y = 6x + 50 is true?

a. They have the same y-intercept.

b. They have the same x-intercept.

c. They are parallel.

d. They are perpendicular.

e. The slopes are additive inverses of each other.

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Questions

479.

Which inequality is represented on the graph shown here?

–6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

–1

–2

–3

–4

–5

–6

a. y > –2x + 3

b. y ≥ –2x + 3

c. y < –2x + 3

d. y <

–2x + 3

e. y < –3x + 1.5

480. Which ordered pair is a solution to the system of equations?

⎧

x + 3 y = 7

⎨

⎩

x + 2y = 10

a. (,

7 13

2 4

)

b. (,

7 17

2 5

)

c. (–2,3)

d. (16,–3)

e. (4,1)

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481.

Find the area of the rectangle.

x + 6

2x – 7

a. 2x

+ 19x – 42

b. 2x

+ 5x – 42

c. 2x

– 42

d. 6x – 2

e. 3x – 1

482.

If a public pool is a regular 25 m pool, with a 12 m width and an

overall depth of 8 m, how many gallons are required to ﬁll three-

quarters of the public pool?

1L = 001 m

1L = 0.26 gallons

a. 624,000 gallons

b. 468,000 gallons

c. 468 gallons

d. 1,800,000 gallons

e. 2,400 gallons

483. The distance between two coordinates, X and Y, is seven units. A

third coordinate, Z, is ﬁve units away from Y. Which of the

following could be the only distance from X to Z?

III. 13

III. 6

III. 1

a. I and II only

b. II only

c. II and III only

d. III only

e. I only

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484.

Find the value of x.

a. 46

b. 65

c. 68

d. 70

e. 72

485. If AB = 3x + 14, BC = 2x + 1 and AC = 75, what is the length of AB?

A B C

a. 12

b. 68

c. 44

d. 50

e. 13

486. In the three-dimensional coordinate plane, what is the

approximate distance between (3,2,–4) and (7,–8,2)?

a. 11.8

b. 12.3

c. 13.1

d. 15.2

e. 16.5

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487. A cylindrical silo and a rectangular silo are both being ﬁlled with

400 m

of corn. The cylindrical silo has a base with an area of

20 m

. The rectangular silo has a base with an area of 10 m

Assuming that the corn will not overﬂow in either, which

statement will be true about the corn levels?

a. The cylindrical silo level will be 20 m higher.

b. The cylindrical silo level will be 10 m lower.

c. The rectangular silo level will be 20 m higher.

d. The rectangular silo level will be 40 m higher.

e. The rectangular silo level will be the same as the cylindrical

silo.

488. If triangle ABC is rotated 180° about point C, and then reﬂected

over the y-axis, what will be the coordinate of B?

–2

a. (–1,–2)

b. (9,1)

c. (9,–1)

d. (–1,2)

e. (–9,–1)

489.

Which list of a triangle’s side lengths is impossible?

a. 4, 7, 4

b. 2, 3, 7

c. 2, 8, 7

d. 5, 6, 7

e. 8, 5, 5

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510

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490.

If angle A and angle B are supplementary angles, and the measure

of angle A < 80°, then you can assume that the

a. measure of angle B = 100°.

b. measure of angle B = 10°.

c. measure of angle B < 80°.

d. measure of angle A > 80°.

e. angle A is an obtuse angle.

491.

Find the midpoint of segment MN if point M is (4,6) and point P

is (–2,14)

a. (2,1)

b. (2,20)

c. (6,8)

d. (1,10)

e. (10,12)

492.

What is the measure of angle x?

a. x = 124°

b. x = 15°

c. x = 35°

d. x = 30°

e. x = 115°

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493. The following net represents which shape?

a. a sphere

b. a cone

c. a dome

d. a cylinder

e. a triangle

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494.

Find the area of the shaded region.

a. 6

b. 28

c. 48

d. 84

e. 90

495. A spherical model of the planet Earth has a diameter of 6 inches.

The interior is a mantle surrounding a molten core. The core has a

radius of 3 inches. What is the volume of everything outside of the

core?

Volume of a sphere =

a. 186p

b. 324p

c. 216p

d. 288p

e. 252p

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496.

A pyramid made of rectangular prisms has layers each half the

width of the layer beneath it. The base is a square that is 8 meters

wide. Each level is a meter high. If the outside of the pyramid was

being painted (not including the bottom), what would the surface

area be of the painted part?

a. 84 m

b. 120 m

c. 208 m

d. 248 m

e. 268 m

497.

Which string of letters has two lines of symmetry?

a. OLLO

b. MEW

c. TAAT

d. OHO

e. IIBII

498.

If the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180° and the sum

of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 360°, which equation

represents the correlation between the sum of the interior angles (s)

and the number of sides of a polygon (n)?

a. s = 180n

b. s = 180n – 180

c. s = 180(n – 2)

d. s = 90n – 90

e. s = n + 177

514

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499.

Use the Pythagorean theorem to ﬁnd x. Round your answer to the

nearest tenth.

11.7

500.

What is the value of x?

45˚

2x + 5

x = 75

x = 25

x = 135

x = 115

x = 65

515

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501.

What is the tangent of A?

A C

516

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Answers

Set 33

428. –KOL; –JOK; –NOM

429. –NOK; –MOJ; –MOL

430. –NOL; –MOK

431. –MOK; –KOM

432. 63°. (180° – 27° – 90°)

Set 34

433. 60°. The sum of both angles must equal 90°.

434. 85°. The sum of both angles must equal 90°.

435. 175°. The sum of both angles must equal 180°.

436. 80°. The sum of both angles must equal 180°.

Set 35

437. Isosceles. There are two equal sides.

438. Scalene. No sides are equal.

439. Equilateral. All sides are equal.

440. Obtuse. One angle is greater than 90°.

441. Acute. All angles are less than 90°.

442. Right. Note the right angle.

Set 36

443. a. True. Squares are special rectangles that have four equal sides.

444. b. False. Not all rectangles have four equal sides.

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____

–0

458.

5 5 –0

459. 1.

–2 – (–

_______

, or

______

–2 + 3

= 1.

–3 – (–4)

–3 + 4

445.

a. True. The rectangles that are also squares are those that have

four equal sides.

446. a. True. Squares and rectangles are special parallelograms that

have four right angles.

447. 14.5 feet. Because the room is square, divide the total perimeter

by 4:

= 14.5

448. 2 feet by 6 feet. Use the formula s + s + 3s + 3s. Solve for s:

8s = 16 feet, or s = 2 feet. The length of the short side is 2 feet, so

each long side is 6 feet.

449.

120 feet. 8,400 = length ¥ 70. Solve for the length:

_____

8,400

= length ¥

70 70

, or 120 feet.

Set 37

450. 47.1 ft. You are told the diameter: 15 ¥ 3.14.

451. 69.08 in. You are told the radius: 2(11) ¥ 3.14.

452. 21.98 m. You are told the diameter: 7 ¥ 3.14.

453. 157 m. You are told the radius: 2(25) ¥ 3.14.

454. 78.5 ft.

. You are told the diameter, so you know the radius is 5:

¥ 3.14.

455. 200.96 m

. You are told the radius: 8

¥ 3.14.

456. 530.66 cm

. You are told the radius: 13

¥ 3.14.

457.

452.16 in.

. You are told the diameter, so you know the radius is

12: 12

3.14.

Set 38

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460.

0. 3 – (–3) would result in a zero in the numerator.

461. –2.

8 – (–

______

, or

= –2.

–2 –5

–7

Set 39

462. c. If the area of the quadrilateral is 81 – 25x

and the value of the

base is 9 – 5x, we can divide to ﬁnd that the height of the

quadrilateral is 9 + 5x. We need to know it is a square because then

we can set the base equal to the height and solve for x. In the

equation 9 – 5x = 9 + 5x, isolate variables and constants by adding

5x to both sides and subtracting 9 from both sides, yielding

0 = 10x. Divide both sides by 10 to get x = 0.

463. e. In order to determine whether line BD and line AC are

perpendicular, you would need to verify that the angle between

them is 90˚. Neither statement gives enough information to

determine the angle between the lines. The ﬁrst statement only

tells you that line AC is a straight line, and statement (2) tells you

that the lines are the same length.

464. b. The only piece of information you need to know in order to

determine whether angle A and angle B are supplementary, or

when added together are equal to 180°, is whether the two lines

they intersect are parallel, as stated in the second statement. When

given two parallel lines, the alternate interior angles of the

transverse line are always supplementary.

465. c. Statement (1) indicates that the radius of circle A is 9, which

means the circumference of the big circle is 18p or roughly 56.5,

which is insufﬁcient to tell determine whether the radius of circle

B is bigger or smaller than 10. Statement (2) indicates that if

XY = 2YZ, then XZ = 3YZ. The radius of A can be set equal to

3YZ to ﬁnd the length of YZ. 9 = 3YZ; divide both sides by 3 to get

3 = YZ. This tells us that the circumference of circle B is 6p or

approximately 18.8, which means yes, it is greater than 10.

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466.

c. Inside a triangle, all angles must add up to 180°.

467.

468.

469.

470.

Complementary angles add up to 90°. To determine the value of

angle A, both statement (1) and statement (2) are needed together.

Statement (1) gives the relationship between angles B and C, yet

this statement alone does not let you determine the measure of

angle A. When combined with statement (2), all three angles can

be determined. If angle B is 30°, then angle C must be 60°

(90 – 30), and since the measures of all angles together must equal

180°, angle A is 90°.

c. Area of a rectangle = length ¥ height. Area of a triangle =

base ¥ height. To determine whether the area of the rectangle

and triangle are the same, you would need both statement (1) and

statement (2). If the triangle height is twice the height of the

rectangle and the bases/lengths are the same, you can set the

equations equal to each other: length ¥ height =

length ¥

2 height.

e. Statements (1) and (2) together are insufﬁcient because the only

way to prove triangle similarity is to have 2 congruent

corresponding angles. Since these two only have one set of

corresponding angles, they could be 2 right triangles, one with a

side triple the other and 2 other angles completely different.

e. In order to prove triangle congruence, you need to prove that

they share two of the same corresponding sides and an angle that is

in the same position on both of them. The information in

statements (1) and (2) does not state that the sides and angle are in

corresponding locations, so congruency cannot be determined.

d. Because of the direct relationship between the two cubes, either

statement is enough information to calculate the volume of both

cubes. Statement (1) gives the value of variable a, which can be

used for both cubes. Statement (2) gives you the volume of the

smaller cube, and if you work backward you can ﬁnd the volume

of a.

= 64

a = 4

Then from this you can ﬁnd the volume of the second cube.

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471.

d. Statement (I) is sufﬁcient because angle J is part of a straight

angle with an interior angle on the parallel transversal. Since the

supplements of J and E are equal, by the converse of the parallel

line transversal theorem (if alternate interior angles of a transversal

are congruent then they are transversing parallel lines) BC is

parallel to DF. Statement (II) is sufﬁcient because H is opposite to

a straight angle and once again by the converse of the parallel line

transversal theorem BC is parallel to DF.

472. e. Statement (I) only implies that angle a equals angle b. This

could make the triangle an isosceles triangle. Statement (II) implies

that if the difference between angle a and angle b is 0, they have

the same measure, which still could possibly be an isosceles

triangle.

473. a. To ﬁnd the surface area of the cube, you would need to ﬁnd the

area of each side using the equation area = length ¥ width. Since

this is a cube, you can change the equation to area = length

Statement (I) gives you the volume, and if you work backward you

will be able to ﬁnd the length of one side. Volume of a cube =

length

27 = length

3 = length

Substitute this into the area equation and you will be able to solve

for the area of each side and ﬁnd the total surface area. Statement

(II) does not give enough information to determine the length of

one side needed to ﬁnd the surface area.

474. b. Given that the circumference of this circle is 2xp, and knowing

that the circumference of a circle is 2pr, then you know that x = r.

This is stated in the ﬁrst statement, but that does not give you

enough information to determine the value for x. Statement (I) is

insufﬁcient. Statement (II) gives you enough information to ﬁnd

the value of x, as you should know the equation for both the

circumference and area of a circle.

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Set 40

475. b. Substitute the points in the form (x

) and (x

) into the

–5 – (–

_______

slope formula. This yields

3 – (–2)

, which simpliﬁes to

, which

equals 0. The incorrect choices contain operation errors and sign

changes.

476. e. To ﬁnd the y intercept of the line, substitute the value 0 for x.

This resulting equation will be 3(0) + 6y = 12. Simplifying this

makes 6y = 12. When both sides are divided by 2, the result is

y = 2. Choices a, b, c, and d substitute 0 for y or have basic

operation errors.

477. d. The line crosses the y-axis at the point (0,1), which means the

y-intercept (b) is 1. The change in y over the change in x (slope

or m) is –

. Replacing these values in the slope-intercept form of

a line yields the answer y = –

x + 1. The incorrect choices contain

switched slopes and wrong signs for slopes.

478. c. In order to tell which statement is true, the equations must be

put in slope-intercept form to check the y-intercept and slopes.

Doing this results in the equations y = –

x + 3 and y = –

x – 5

respectively. These equations have the same slope, so they will be

parallel. The other choices are incorrect because they don’t have

opposite reciprocal slopes; therefore, they aren’t perpendicular.

The y-intercepts in the equations are 3 and –5; they aren’t the

same, and if you replace y with 0 and solve for x in each equation,

they do not share the same x-intercept.

479. c. Since the area below the line is shaded, the y will be greater

than the other side of the equation. In addition, the line of the

equation is a dashed line, so it will not be greater than or equal to

and will not include the solutions on that line. The incorrect

choices are all variations of reversed inequalities.

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480. d. Using the method of linear combination or elimination,

multiply the second equation by –1. Then combine the two

equations x + 3y = 7 and –x – 2y = –10. This results is y = –3.

Substitute the value of y into either of the original equations to

obtain the x-value. x + 3(–3) = 7 when simpliﬁed yields x – 9 = 7.

Add 9 to both sides to ﬁnd that x =16. The ordered pair (16,–3)

reﬂects the answers y = –3 and x = 16. The incorrect choices are all

the result of addition error or leaving out a negative.

481.

b. Area is equal to the base times the height. Multiply the terms in

each binomial by the terms in the other binomial: x(2x), x(–7),

6(2x) and 6(–7). This yields the expression 2x

– 7x + 12x – 42.

Combine terms to get 2x

+ 5x – 42. Wrong answers were obtained

through common calculation errors (choice a), not multiplying all

terms (choices c and d), and ﬁnding the perimeter (choice e).

482.

b. To start this problem you have to determine the volume of the

pool when it is three-quarters full.

V = l ¥ w ¥ h

V = 25 m ¥

12 m ¥

(8 m)

V = 1800 m

Then you need to convert the cubic meters into liters, and then

gallons.

________

1 liter

0.26 gallons

1800 m

__________

0.001 m

1 liter

= 468,000 gallons

Choice a uses 8 m to ﬁnd volume, resulting in the overall depth,

not three-quarters. Choices c and d are conversion errors. Choice

c omits the conversion to liters and choice d omits the conversion

to gallons.

483.

b. If X and Y are seven units apart and Z is ﬁve units from Y, the

absolute furthest distance between X and Z would be 12 (5 + 7),

and that would only be if angle XYZ was 180°, or they were all

along a straight line. The absolute shortest distance between X and

Z would be 2 (7 – 5), and that would only be if angle XYZ was 0°,

and Z was a point on the line between X and Y. All the other

numbers are not possible.

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484.

b. Obtain the length of x by taking the length of each segment,

adding them and dividing by 2 to ﬁnd the mean value of both

_______

42 + 88 130

segments.

___

= 65. Incorrect answers are incorrect

estimates and the result of subtracting the sides.

485.

d. To ﬁnd the length of AB, simply set up the equation AB + BC =

AC. Substituting in values you get 3x + 14 + 2x + 1 = 75, then solve

for x. When like terms are combined, the equation becomes

5x + 15 = 75. Using the additive inverse, 5x + 15 – 15 = 75 – 15

yields 5x = 60. Divide both sides by 5 to get x = 12. Substitute the

value of x into the expression for AB: 3(12) + 14. 36 + 14 = 50,

which is the length of AB. Incorrect choices include the value of x,

the length of BC, and an answer with an incorrect operational

error.

486.

a. In order to ﬁnd the distance between the points, use the

distance formula and take the square root of (x y

+ x

)

+ (

+ y

) +

+ z

) . Replacing the values of x, y, and z with the coordinate

components yields the square root of (7 + 3)

+ (–8 + 2)

+ (2 – 4)

Simplifying yields the square root of 10

+ (–6)

+ (–2)

, which

equals the square root of 100 + 36 + 4, which is the square root of

140, which is 11.8. Choices b, c, and d have operational errors

used in the distance formula.

487.

c. The height of each corn level in both silos can be obtained by

using volume = that silo’s base area times its height. The

rectangular silo has a base of 10 cm

, so 400 = 10h, which means its

height is 40. The cylindrical silo’s height can be found the same

way, 400 = 20h, which means its height is 20. Hence, the

rectangular silo will be 20 m higher than the cylindrical silo. The

incorrect choices include the difference between the bases, the

height of only one silo, or switching the heights.

488.

e. When triangle ABC is rotated about point C, the new

coordinate of B will become (9,–1). When (9,–1) is reﬂected over

the y-axis, it will become (–9,–1). The other choices have reﬂected

over the wrong axis or have the wrong sign.

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489. b. The triangle with sides 2, 3, and 7 is impossible to form because

the sides 2 and 3 do not have lengths that could add to more than

the third side. All three sides of the triangle would not connect.

Each other triangle has two sides that add up to more than the

third.

490.

d. If angle A and angle B are supplementary, that means that

A + B = 180. So if angle A is less than 80°, in order to add up to

180 angle B must be greater than 80°. The incorrect choices

include mixups with complementary instead of supplementary,

assuming that A = 80°, and greater than and less than mixups.

491.

d. To ﬁnd the midpoint of segment MN, one can average each

_______

4 + (–2)

component of the points. Average the x-values

and get x = 1.

______

6 + 14

Average the y-components

and get y = 10. Together these

yield the coordinate (1,10). The other choices are incorrect

because of operational errors an adding the coordinates instead of

averaging them.

492. b. Find the two other bottom angles in order to ﬁnd x. The

middle triangle’s interior angles will all add to 180, so ﬁnd the

missing angle by using the expression 180 – 80 – 25. The bottom

angle will be 75°. Since 30 and 75 and the third angle on the

bottom of the ﬁgure make up a straight angle, this is 180°.

Subtract again to ﬁnd the third angle. 180 – 75 – 30 yields 75.

Two of the angles in the triangle on the left are 75 and 90 degrees.

180 – 75 – 90 gives the value of x, which is 15. The incorrect

choices include other angles in the ﬁgure or angles that were

yielded from operational errors.

493. b. When constructed, the circular part of the net becomes the base

of the shape and the round part on the bottom wraps around the

edge of the circle to create the point for the cone.

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494.

d. To ﬁnd the area of the shaded region, the area of the inner

rectangle must be subtracted from the area of the outer rectangle.

The equation is area = length ¥ height, so the area of the outer

rectangle is (10 ¥ 9) = 90, and the area of the inner rectangle is

(2 ¥ 3) = 6. Then, to ﬁnd only the shaded area subtract 90 – 6 and

the correct answer is 84. Choices a and e represent the area of

either rectangle if it is found alone.

495. e. To ﬁnd the volume of everything outside the core in the model

of Earth, the volume of the core must be subtracted from the

volume of the total Earth. Find the volume of each by substituting

radius values into the volume formula. The volume of Earth is

p¥6

= 288p. The volume of the core is

3 3

p¥3

= 36p.

288p – 36p = 252p.

496. b. Find the area of each exposed surface face. All the upward-facing

squares will have a combined surface area of a large 8 ¥ 8 square,

so the upward-facing area is 8(8) = 64. The side wall for the base is

8 ¥ 1 and there are four of them, so 8(1)(4). Add this to the side

areas for each level to receive the expression 8(1)(4) + 4(1)(4) +

2(1)(4) = 32 + 16 + 8 = 56. Add the side area (56) with the upward

area (64) to get the total surface area 120 m

. The other choices

added extra sides or the bottoms of each shape not visible on the

surface.

497. d. The string of letters OHO is the only choice that has two lines

of symmetry, one vertical that divides it in half in the center of the

H and a horizontal axis that reﬂects the top to the bottom and runs

through the middle of the letters. Other choices only have one or

no lines of symmetry.

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498.

c. A triangle is a 3-sided polygon, and a quadrilateral is a 4-sided

polygon. The difference between the sums of the interior angles of

these shapes is 360° – 180° = 180°. A triangle is the polygon with

the fewest number of sides (there cannot be a 1- or 2-sided

polygon), so it can be reasoned that for each side added to a

polygon above 3, the sum of the interior angles of that polygon

increases by 180°. The equation for the sum of the interior angles

of a polygon must hold true for all polygons, including triangles,

so the equation must subtract the number of sides of the polygon

by 2 before multiplying by 180°. This yields the equation

s = 180(

n – 2), which holds true for the given sums of interior

angles for triangles and quadrilaterals. When the given values are

substituted into the other equations, they are not solutions.

499.

c. When the values are plugged into the Pythagorean theorem,

+ b

= c

yields x

+ 6

= 10

. When simpliﬁed, it yields x

+ 36 =

100. Subtract 36 from both sides to get x

= 64. Take the square

root of both sides to ﬁnd that x = 8. The other choices either

replaced the wrong values in the Pythagorean theorem or are

approximate lengths.

500.

e. Since the bases of a trapezoid are parallel, it can be assumed

that both bottom angles are equal and both top angles are equal,

and since the sum of all interior angles of a quadrilateral are equal

to 360°, the equation can be formed as 2(45) + 2(2x + 5) = 360.

Simplifying yields 90 + 4x + 10 = 360, which simpliﬁes to 4

x + 100

= 360. Subtracting 100 from both sides yields 4x = 260, and when

both sides are divided by 4, x = 65. The other choices assumed that

45 = 2x + 5 or included common operational errors.

501.

e. The tangent of an angle in a right triangle is equal to the

opposite side of that angle divided by the adjacent side to that

angle. The opposite side is 16 and the adjacent is 12. Reduce the

fraction

to get

. The wrong choices have other answers mixed

up with ratios of the adjacent side, the hypotenuse, and the

opposite side.

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